17 Free Utah Life & Health Practice Questions: Medicare, Long-Term Care and Tax (2026)

23 min read|Updated 2026-10-23

How to Use This Medicare, Long-Term Care and Tax Set

This set covers Chapter 8, Medicare, Long-Term Care Insurance and Federal Tax Considerations for Accident and Health Insurance. On the combined exam's outline that is Medicare, weighted 4%, Long-Term Care Insurance, weighted 4%, and Federal Tax Considerations for Accident and Health Insurance, weighted 2%.

The questions test Medicare parts, Medigap guaranteed-issue situations, tax-qualified long-term care and the tax treatment of health savings and reimbursement accounts. Answer first, then read the explanation.

Practice Questions 1-6: Medicare, Marketing Rules and Health Account Taxation

Original Medicare coverage for end-stage renal disease, the scope-of-appointment form, the self-employed premium deduction, the health reimbursement account, Medigap guaranteed issue and HSA tax treatment.

Question 1 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident who is eligible for Medicare due to end-stage renal disease (ESRD) enrolls in Original Medicare. Which statement accurately describes her coverage under Part A and Part B?

  • A) Part A covers inpatient hospital services related to ESRD, but Part B does not cover outpatient dialysis services.
  • B) Part A covers home health services for ESRD, but Part B does not cover any ESRD-related services.
  • C) Both Part A and Part B require her to pay a monthly premium for ESRD coverage.
  • D) Part A covers inpatient hospital stays, and Part B covers outpatient dialysis services and doctor visits related to ESRD.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because Part A covers inpatient hospital care, including stays related to ESRD, and Part B covers outpatient medical services such as dialysis treatments and doctor visits for ESRD management. A is incorrect because Part B does cover outpatient dialysis services. B is incorrect because Part B does cover ESRD-related outpatient services like dialysis and doctor visits. C is incorrect because Part A is typically premium-free for those who paid Medicare taxes (including ESRD patients), while only Part B requires a monthly premium.

Question 2 (Chapter 8)

Under the Medicare Improvements for Patients and Providers Act of 2008 (MIPPA), what restriction applies to Utah insurance producers when marketing Medicare Advantage or Part D plans to prospective clients?

  • A) Producers must complete 3 hours of Medicare-specific training before discussing any Medicare product with a client.
  • B) Producers are allowed to combine the sale of a Medicare Advantage plan with the sale of a life insurance policy in the same appointment without restriction.
  • C) Producers must disclose their commission structure to the client before presenting any plan options.
  • D) Producers must obtain a signed scope-of-appointment form from the client before discussing plan details during a marketing appointment.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because MIPPA requires insurance producers to obtain a signed scope-of-appointment form from the client before discussing Medicare Advantage or Part D plan details during a marketing appointment. This form limits the discussion to the products specified and prevents unsolicited cross-selling. A is incorrect because MIPPA does not mandate a specific training hour requirement for Medicare discussions; training requirements come from other sources like state CE or carrier guidelines. B is incorrect because MIPPA restricts cross-selling; producers cannot combine the sale of a Medicare Advantage or Part D plan with other insurance products (like life insurance) during the same appointment without adhering to scope-of-appointment rules. C is incorrect because while disclosure of compensation may be good practice, MIPPA does not specifically require producers to disclose their commission structure to clients before presenting plan options.

Question 3 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident who is self-employed as a sole proprietor pays $4,800 annually for her own health insurance premiums. How does she typically treat these premiums for federal income tax purposes?

  • A) She can deduct the premiums as an adjustment to income on Form 1040, regardless of whether she itemizes deductions.
  • B) She can deduct the premiums as an itemized medical expense on Schedule A, subject to the 7.5% of adjusted gross income floor.
  • C) She cannot deduct the premiums at all because she is not incorporated.
  • D) She must treat the premiums as a business expense on Schedule C, which reduces her self-employment tax liability.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct because self-employed individuals, including sole proprietors and partners, may deduct 100% of their health insurance premiums as an adjustment to income on Form 1040 (line 16 of Schedule 1), which reduces adjusted gross income and is available whether or not they itemize deductions. B is incorrect because while medical expenses can be itemized, the self-employed health insurance deduction is specifically an above-the-line adjustment, not subject to the 7.5% AGI floor for itemized medical expenses. C is incorrect because self-employed individuals are eligible for this deduction. D is incorrect because, although the premiums are related to the business, they are deducted as an adjustment to income on Form 1040, not as a business expense on Schedule C; deducting them on Schedule C would not reduce self-employment tax liability, as the adjustment to income approach does.

Question 4 (Chapter 8)

A Utah employer offers a Health Reimbursement Account (HRA) to its employees. Which statement accurately describes how the HRA is treated for federal income tax purposes?

  • A) Employees must include the value of HRA contributions in their taxable income, but reimbursements for medical expenses are tax-free.
  • B) Employees can make pre-tax contributions to the HRA through payroll deduction, similar to a flexible spending account (FSA).
  • C) Employer contributions to the HRA are deductible by the employer, and reimbursements for qualified medical expenses are excluded from the employee's taxable income.
  • D) The HRA is funded by employee pre-tax contributions, and the employer administers the account for a fee.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

C is correct because HRAs are employer-funded accounts; employer contributions are deductible as a business expense, and reimbursements paid to employees for qualified medical expenses are excludable from the employees' taxable income. A is incorrect because employees do not include employer HRA contributions in their taxable income. B is incorrect because HRAs are funded solely by the employer; employees cannot make contributions to an HRA. D is incorrect because HRAs are funded by the employer, not by employee pre-tax contributions.

Question 5 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident who is 67 years old and enrolled in Original Medicare Part B wants to purchase a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy. She missed her initial Medigap Open Enrollment Period. Which of the following situations would trigger a guaranteed-issue right for her to buy a Medigap policy without medical underwriting in Utah?

  • A) She decides she wants a plan with lower premiums and wants to switch from Plan G to Plan N.
  • B) She moves to a new state and wants to keep the same Medigap plan she had in Utah.
  • C) She loses her employer-sponsored group health coverage that was paying secondary to Medicare.
  • D) She is diagnosed with a new chronic condition and wants more comprehensive coverage.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

C is correct because losing employer-sponsored group health coverage that was paying secondary to Medicare is a recognized guaranteed-issue situation under federal and Utah law, allowing the individual to purchase certain Medigap plans without medical underwriting. A is incorrect because wanting to switch plans for lower premiums is not a guaranteed-issue trigger. B is incorrect because moving to a new state does not, by itself, trigger a guaranteed-issue right to buy a Medigap plan; it may allow a switch under certain conditions, but not guaranteed issue without underwriting. D is incorrect because a new diagnosis triggers medical underwriting considerations and does not confer guaranteed-issue rights.

Question 6 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident establishes a Health Savings Account (HSA) and contributes $3,000 for the year. She uses $800 from the HSA to pay for qualified medical expenses. Which statement accurately describes the federal tax treatment of her HSA?

  • A) The $3,000 contribution is deductible, the $800 withdrawal for qualified medical expenses is tax-free, and earnings grow tax-free.
  • B) The $3,000 contribution is deductible, the $800 withdrawal is taxable, and earnings grow tax-deferred.
  • C) The $3,000 contribution is not deductible, but the $800 withdrawal is tax-free and earnings grow tax-free.
  • D) The $3,000 contribution is deductible, the $800 withdrawal is tax-free, but earnings are subject to annual taxation.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct because HSA contributions are deductible (or pre-tax if through payroll), withdrawals for qualified medical expenses are tax-free, and earnings (interest, dividends, capital gains) grow tax-free inside the account—this is the 'triple tax advantage.' B is incorrect because qualified withdrawals are tax-free, not taxable. C is incorrect because contributions are deductible. D is incorrect because earnings grow tax-free, not subject to annual taxation.

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Practice Questions 7-12: Long-Term Care, Open Enrollment and HSA Rules

Tax-qualified long-term care requirements, Medigap open enrollment, tax treatment of long-term care benefits, self-employed deductions together with an HSA, HSA eligibility after Medicare and employer HSA contributions.

Question 7 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident purchases a tax-qualified long-term care (LTC) insurance policy. Which of the following is a requirement for the policy to be considered tax-qualified under federal law?

  • A) The policy must require the insured to be unable to perform at least two activities of daily living (ADLs) or have cognitive impairment to trigger benefits.
  • B) The policy must include a return-of-premium rider upon death or lapse.
  • C) The policy must pay benefits only if the insured is receiving care in a licensed nursing facility.
  • D) The policy must have a maximum benefit period of no more than two years.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct because for an LTC policy to be tax-qualified under federal law (specifically Section 7702B(b) of the Internal Revenue Code), it must require that the insured be unable to perform at least two activities of daily living (ADLs) for a period of at least 90 days due to loss of functional capacity, or require substantial supervision due to severe cognitive impairment, to trigger benefits. B is incorrect because a return-of-premium rider is not required for tax qualification. C is incorrect because tax-qualified LTC policies can cover care in various settings, including home and assisted living, not just nursing facilities. D is incorrect because there is no federal maximum benefit period requirement for tax qualification; benefit periods can vary.

Question 8 (Chapter 8)

A 66-year-old Utah resident is enrolled in Original Medicare Part A and Part B. She is considering purchasing a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy. She has a pre-existing condition and is concerned about being denied coverage. She applies for a Medigap Plan G during her Medigap Open Enrollment Period. Which statement accurately describes the insurer's obligations under Utah law and federal regulations?

  • A) The insurer may deny her application based on her pre-existing condition because Medigap policies are subject to full medical underwriting in Utah.
  • B) The insurer must issue the policy but may impose a pre-existing condition waiting period of up to 6 months before covering expenses related to that condition.
  • C) The insurer must issue the policy and cannot impose any pre-existing condition waiting period because she is applying during her Medigap Open Enrollment Period.
  • D) The insurer may charge her a higher premium based on her health status but cannot deny coverage during the Open Enrollment Period.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Correct: During the Medigap Open Enrollment Period (the 6-month period starting when an individual is both 65 or older and enrolled in Part B), insurers must issue any Medigap policy they sell without medical underwriting and cannot impose pre-existing condition waiting periods. This is a federal guarantee under the Medicare Improvements for Patients and Providers Act (MIPPA) and applies in Utah. A is incorrect because medical underwriting is prohibited during Open Enrollment. B is incorrect because pre-existing condition waiting periods are not allowed during Open Enrollment. D is incorrect because premiums cannot be based on health status during Open Enrollment; they can only be based on age, gender, and tobacco use (community-rated, issue-age-rated, or attained-age-rated).

Question 9 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident is eligible for Medicare due to receiving Social Security disability benefits. After how many months of receiving these benefits does his Medicare eligibility begin?

  • A) Immediately upon approval of disability benefits
  • B) After 6 months of receiving disability benefits
  • C) After 12 months of receiving disability benefits
  • D) After 24 months of receiving disability benefits
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because individuals under 65 qualify for Medicare after receiving Social Security disability benefits for 24 months. This waiting period does not apply to those with end-stage renal disease or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), who may qualify sooner. A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the 24-month requirement for disability-based Medicare eligibility.

Question 10 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident who is self-employed as a sole proprietor has a net profit of $50,000 for the year. She pays $6,000 in health insurance premiums for herself and her family. She also has a Health Savings Account (HSA) and contributes $3,000 to it. Which statement accurately describes the federal income tax treatment of these items?

  • A) The $6,000 health insurance premiums are deductible only as an itemized deduction on Schedule A subject to the 7.5% AGI floor, and the $3,000 HSA contribution is deductible as an adjustment to income.
  • B) The $6,000 health insurance premiums are not deductible because she is eligible for an employer-sponsored plan through her spouse, and the $3,000 HSA contribution is deductible as an adjustment to income.
  • C) The $6,000 health insurance premiums are deductible as an adjustment to income (above-the-line) up to the amount of net profit, and the $3,000 HSA contribution is also deductible as an adjustment to income.
  • D) The $6,000 health insurance premiums are deductible as a business expense on Schedule C, and the $3,000 HSA contribution is not deductible because she is self-employed.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Correct: Self-employed individuals (sole proprietors, partners, >2% S corp shareholders) can deduct health insurance premiums as an adjustment to income (above-the-line) on Form 1040, limited to net profit from the business. This is the self-employed health insurance deduction under IRC § 162(l). HSA contributions are also deductible as an adjustment to income (above-the-line) for eligible individuals with an HDHP, regardless of employment status. A is incorrect because the self-employed health insurance deduction is above-the-line, not an itemized deduction. B is incorrect because eligibility for a spouse's employer plan would disqualify the deduction, but the question does not state she is eligible for such a plan. D is incorrect because the deduction is not on Schedule C (it's on Schedule 1/Form 1040), and HSA contributions are deductible for self-employed individuals.

Question 11 (Chapter 8)

A Utah resident is enrolled in a high-deductible health plan (HDHP) and has a Health Savings Account (HSA). She turns 65 in July and enrolls in Medicare Part A (premium-free) and Part B. She wants to continue contributing to her HSA. Which statement accurately describes her eligibility to contribute to the HSA after enrolling in Medicare?

  • A) She can continue to contribute to her HSA as long as she remains enrolled in the HDHP, because Medicare Part A is premium-free and does not count as 'other coverage'.
  • B) She can continue to contribute to her HSA at the full annual limit because she is still working and has an HDHP through her employer.
  • C) She can contribute to her HSA for the months before she enrolled in Medicare (January through June), but cannot contribute for any month she is enrolled in Medicare (July through December).
  • D) She can contribute to her HSA only if she delays enrollment in Medicare Part B and only enrolls in Part A.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Correct: Under IRS rules, an individual is not eligible to contribute to an HSA for any month they are enrolled in Medicare (Part A or Part B). Enrollment in Medicare disqualifies HSA eligibility starting the first month of enrollment. However, she can make contributions for the months prior to Medicare enrollment (prorated annual limit). She can still use existing HSA funds tax-free for qualified medical expenses. A is incorrect because any Medicare enrollment (including premium-free Part A) disqualifies HSA contributions. B is incorrect because Medicare enrollment disqualifies HSA contributions regardless of employment status or HDHP coverage. D is incorrect because even Part A alone disqualifies HSA contributions; delaying Part B does not preserve eligibility if Part A is taken.

Question 12 (Chapter 8)

A Utah employer offers a Health Savings Account (HSA) to employees enrolled in a high-deductible health plan (HDHP). The employer contributes $500 per year to each employee's HSA. An employee also contributes $2,000 pre-tax via payroll deduction. The employee uses $1,200 from the HSA to pay for qualified medical expenses. Which statement accurately describes the federal tax treatment of these transactions?

  • A) The employer's $500 contribution is excluded from the employee's income, the employee's $2,000 contribution is deductible (or pre-tax), and the $1,200 withdrawal for qualified expenses is tax-free.
  • B) The employer's $500 contribution is taxable to the employee, the employee's $2,000 contribution is deductible, and the $1,200 withdrawal is taxable.
  • C) The employer's $500 contribution is excluded from the employee's income, the employee's $2,000 contribution is not deductible because the employer also contributed, and the $1,200 withdrawal is tax-free.
  • D) The employer's $500 contribution is taxable to the employee, the employee's $2,000 contribution is deductible, and the $1,200 withdrawal is tax-free only if the employee is over age 65.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Correct: HSA contributions by an employer are excluded from the employee's gross income (not taxable). Employee contributions via payroll deduction are pre-tax (excluded from wages) or deductible above-the-line if made directly. Withdrawals for qualified medical expenses are tax-free at any age. The triple tax advantage: contributions tax-free, earnings tax-free, qualified withdrawals tax-free. B is incorrect because employer contributions are not taxable, and qualified withdrawals are not taxable. C is incorrect because employee contributions are still deductible/pre-tax even if employer contributes (subject to annual limit). D is incorrect because employer contributions are not taxable, and qualified withdrawals are tax-free at any age, not just over 65.

Practice Questions 13-17: Medigap Rights and Plan Coverage

Medigap with retiree coverage, two questions on the Medicare Advantage open enrollment period and guaranteed issue, Plan F hospital cost-sharing and what Plan K pays.

Question 13 (Chapter 8)

A 66-year-old Utah resident is enrolled in Medicare Part A (premium-free) and Part B. She is covered by her former employer's retiree health plan, which pays secondary to Medicare. She wants to purchase a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) Plan N. The insurer informs her that because she has retiree coverage, she may not need Medigap. Which statement is TRUE regarding her right to purchase Medigap Plan N?

  • A) She cannot purchase a Medigap policy while she has employer retiree coverage because it would be duplicate coverage prohibited by Utah law.
  • B) She has a guaranteed-issue right to buy Medigap Plan N if she is within her Medigap Open Enrollment Period, regardless of her retiree coverage.
  • C) She must first terminate her retiree coverage before applying for Medigap, or the application will be denied.
  • D) The insurer can deny her Medigap application based on her health status because retiree coverage disqualifies her from open enrollment protections.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

The Medigap Open Enrollment Period (OEP) provides a guaranteed-issue right to buy any Medigap policy sold in the state, regardless of health status or other coverage (including employer retiree plans). The OEP is the 6-month period starting when the individual is both 65+ and enrolled in Part B. Having retiree coverage does not eliminate this federal right. Option A is false; duplicate coverage is not prohibited (though it may be unnecessary). Option C is false; she does not need to terminate retiree coverage first. Option D is false; health status cannot be used to deny coverage during the OEP.

Question 14 (Chapter 8)

A Utah insurance producer is discussing Medicare Advantage (Part C) plans with a client who is enrolled in Original Medicare. Which statement accurately describes a key feature of Medicare Advantage plans?

  • A) Medicare Advantage plans are prohibited from offering any benefits beyond what Original Medicare covers.
  • B) Enrollees in Medicare Advantage plans must also purchase a separate Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy to cover out-of-pocket costs.
  • C) Medicare Advantage plans are administered directly by the federal government, not by private insurance companies.
  • D) Medicare Advantage plans must cover at least the same benefits as Original Medicare but may offer additional benefits such as vision, hearing, or dental coverage.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because Medicare Advantage (Part C) plans are offered by private companies approved by Medicare and must provide at least the same coverage as Original Medicare Part A and Part B, but they may also offer extra benefits like vision, hearing, dental, or wellness programs. A is incorrect because Medicare Advantage plans can and often do offer additional benefits beyond Original Medicare. B is incorrect because it is illegal to sell a Medigap policy to someone who has a Medicare Advantage plan, unless they are disenrolling from the Advantage plan to return to Original Medicare. C is incorrect because Medicare Advantage plans are administered by private insurance companies, not directly by the federal government.

Question 15 (Chapter 8)

A 68-year-old Utah resident is enrolled in Original Medicare Part A and Part B. She has a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) Plan F (purchased before 2020). She is hospitalized for 150 days in a single benefit period. Which of the following costs is she responsible for paying out-of-pocket under her Medigap Plan F?

  • A) The Part A deductible for the benefit period.
  • B) Nothing; Plan F covers all Part A cost-sharing for a 150-day hospitalization.
  • C) The Part A coinsurance for days 61-90.
  • D) The Part A coinsurance for lifetime reserve days (days 91-150).
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Medigap Plan F (available to those eligible for Medicare before 2020) is the most comprehensive plan. It covers the Part A deductible, Part A coinsurance for days 61-90, Part A coinsurance for lifetime reserve days (days 91-150), and 365 additional lifetime hospital days after Medicare benefits are exhausted. For a 150-day stay within a single benefit period, Plan F covers all Part A cost-sharing (deductible + coinsurance for days 1-150). The beneficiary pays $0 out-of-pocket for Part A hospitalization costs. Options A, C, and D are all costs that Plan F covers.

Question 16 (Chapter 8)

A 68-year-old Utah resident is enrolled in a Medicare Advantage (Part C) HMO plan. On February 10, she decides to disenroll from her MA plan and return to Original Medicare. She applies for a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) Plan G on February 15. Under federal rules, does she have a guaranteed-issue right to purchase Medigap Plan G without medical underwriting?

  • A) Yes, because she is within the Medicare Advantage Open Enrollment Period (January 1 – March 31)
  • B) No, the Medicare Advantage Open Enrollment Period does not trigger a federal guaranteed-issue right for Medigap; she would be subject to medical underwriting unless she qualifies for another guaranteed-issue situation
  • C) Yes, because disenrolling from an MA plan during the MA OEP triggers a federal guaranteed-issue right for Medigap
  • D) No, she must wait until the Annual Election Period (October 15 – December 7) to disenroll and then apply for Medigap with guaranteed issue
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

The Medicare Advantage Open Enrollment Period (MA OEP, Jan 1–Mar 31) allows a beneficiary enrolled in an MA plan to disenroll and return to Original Medicare, but it does NOT trigger a federal guaranteed-issue right for a Medigap policy. Federal guaranteed-issue rights for Medigap arise in specific situations (e.g., initial Medigap OEP, loss of employer coverage, MA plan termination, moving out of service area). Simply using the MA OEP to switch to Original Medicare is not one of them. Option A is incorrect because being in the MA OEP alone does not grant Medigap guaranteed issue. Option C is incorrect because disenrolling during MA OEP does not trigger federal Medigap guaranteed issue. Option D is incorrect because the AEP also does not grant Medigap guaranteed issue.

Question 17 (Chapter 8)

A 66-year-old Utah resident is enrolled in Original Medicare Part A and Part B. She has a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) Plan K. She is hospitalized for inpatient care. Which of the following best describes how Medigap Plan K covers her hospitalization costs under Original Medicare?

  • A) Plan K covers 100% of the Medicare Part A deductible and all coinsurance costs.
  • B) Plan K covers 100% of coinsurance after the deductible is met.
  • C) Plan K covers 50% of the Medicare Part A deductible, 50% of coinsurance, and 50% of the first three pints of blood.
  • D) Plan K covers the Medicare Part A deductible in full and 75% of coinsurance.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Medigap Plan K covers 50% of the Medicare Part A deductible, 50% of coinsurance for hospital stays, and 50% of the first three pints of blood. It has an annual out-of-pocket limit, after which it pays 100% for the rest of the year. Option A describes Plan F or G (pre-2020). Option B is incorrect because Plan K does not cover 100% of coinsurance. Option D describes a hybrid not matching any standard Plan; Plan L covers 75% of deductible and coinsurance, but Plan K is 50%.

The Mistakes That Cost Marks

Assuming every plan change carries guaranteed issue. Medigap guaranteed issue is tied to specific situations, such as losing employer coverage that paid after Medicare, and to the open enrollment period. Wanting a cheaper plan or a new diagnosis is not one.

Treating the Medicare Advantage open enrollment period as a Medigap right. It lets you leave a Medicare Advantage plan. It does not by itself give a federal guaranteed-issue right to buy Medigap.

Missing the HSA and Medicare rule. Contributions stop for the months you are enrolled in Medicare.

Calling an HRA employee-funded. A health reimbursement account is funded by the employer. Reimbursements for qualified expenses are excluded from the employee's income.

Forgetting the tax-qualified long-term care trigger. The insured must be unable to perform at least two activities of daily living or have a severe cognitive impairment.

Quoting the wrong Medigap percentages. Plan K pays 50% of the listed cost-sharing. Plan F, for those eligible before 2020, covers the Part A deductible and coinsurance in full.

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