17 Free Utah Life & Health Practice Questions: Medical Plans (2026)
How to Use This Medical Plans Set
This set covers Chapter 6, Medical Plans. On the combined exam's outline Medical Plans is weighted 10%, one of the three largest sections. The set blends plan types (HMO, PPO, EPO and POS) with the federal rules around them: HIPAA, the ACA and essential health benefits.
Work each question first. The managed-care distinctions are exactly the ones the exam likes to test with near-identical options.
Practice Questions 1-6: Plan Types, Enrollment Rights and Federal Rules
The HMO gatekeeper rule, special enrollment after job loss, guaranteed issue, the employer shared responsibility provisions, HIPAA privacy toward the employer and out-of-network care in an EPO.
Question 1 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident enrolled in an HMO plan needs to see a cardiologist for a heart condition. Under the typical HMO gatekeeping model, what step must the insured take before the specialist visit will be covered?
- A) Pay the full specialist fee upfront and submit a claim for indemnity reimbursement
- B) Verify the cardiologist participates in the plan's preferred provider network
- C) Request precertification directly from the insurance company's utilization review department
- D) Obtain a referral from their designated primary care physician
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
D is correct because HMOs require a primary care physician (PCP) to act as a gatekeeper; the PCP must issue a referral before a specialist visit is covered. A is incorrect because indemnity reimbursement describes a fee-for-service model, not an HMO's managed-care approach. B is incorrect because verifying network participation is a PPO/EPO concept; HMOs generally require referrals even for in-network specialists. C is incorrect because precertification is a utilization review function typically initiated by the provider, not a substitute for the HMO's referral requirement.
Question 2 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident loses their job-based group health coverage on March 15. They want to enroll in an individual market plan through the federal marketplace. Under HIPAA special enrollment rights and ACA rules, what is the latest date by which they must apply to qualify for a special enrollment period?
- A) 30 days after the loss of coverage (by April 14)
- B) 60 days after the loss of coverage (by May 14)
- C) 90 days after the loss of coverage (by June 13)
- D) The next open enrollment period only; loss of job-based coverage does not trigger a special enrollment period
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
B is correct: Both HIPAA and the ACA provide a 60-day special enrollment period following loss of minimum essential coverage, including job-based coverage. A is incorrect because 30 days applies to some HIPAA special enrollment triggers (e.g., birth/adoption) but not loss of coverage. C is incorrect because 90 days is not the standard SEP window. D is incorrect because loss of job-based coverage is a qualifying life event that triggers a special enrollment period.
Question 3 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident with a pre-existing condition applies for individual health insurance coverage. The insurer reviews the application and notes the condition but issues the policy at standard rates without any exclusion rider or waiting period. Which law primarily requires this guaranteed issue protection in Utah's individual market?
- A) The Affordable Care Act (ACA) guaranteed issue provisions
- B) HIPAA portability provisions for individual market coverage
- C) Utah's HIPUtah high-risk pool statute (31A-29-101–123)
- D) Utah Insurance Code § 31A-22-605 (individual policy provisions)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A is correct: The ACA's guaranteed issue requirement (effective 2014) prohibits insurers from denying coverage or charging higher premiums based on health status in the individual market. B is incorrect because HIPAA's portability provisions primarily addressed group-to-group and group-to-individual portability with limited individual market protections; the ACA superseded and expanded these. C is incorrect because HIPUtah was Utah's high-risk pool mechanism for otherwise-uninsurable individuals, largely supplanted by ACA guaranteed issue. D is incorrect because § 31A-22-605 addresses standard policy provisions, not guaranteed issue.
Question 4 (Chapter 6)
A Utah employer with 50 full-time equivalent employees offers a group health plan that does not meet the ACA's minimum value standard (pays less than 60% of total allowed costs). The employer does not offer any other plan. What penalty exposure does the employer face under the ACA's employer shared responsibility provisions?
- A) A penalty if any full-time employee receives a premium tax credit for marketplace coverage because the plan fails minimum value
- B) No penalty if at least 95% of full-time employees are offered coverage, regardless of minimum value
- C) A penalty only if the plan also fails the affordability test for the employee's share of the premium.
- D) No penalty because Utah has not adopted the ACA employer mandate at the state level
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A is correct. An applicable large employer whose plan fails the minimum-value standard owes the shared-responsibility payment once at least one full-time employee receives a premium tax credit on the marketplace. B is wrong because offering coverage that fails minimum value does not avoid the payment. C is wrong because failing minimum value alone triggers it; affordability is a separate test. D is wrong because the mandate is federal and applies in every state.
Question 5 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident is covered under a group health plan that is subject to HIPAA's privacy rule. The resident's employer requests a copy of the employee's detailed medical claims history from the health plan to evaluate a workplace accommodation request. Under HIPAA, may the health plan disclose this information to the employer without the employee's authorization?
- A) No, the health plan may not disclose protected health information to the employer without the individual's written authorization, except for limited summary data
- B) Yes, because the employer is the plan sponsor and has a right to access all plan data
- C) Yes, but only if the employer certifies the information is needed for plan administration functions
- D) No, but the employer may obtain the information directly from the employee's treating physician with a signed release
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A is correct: HIPAA's privacy rule strictly limits a group health plan's disclosure of protected health information (PHI) to the plan sponsor (employer). The plan may only disclose summary information (e.g., enrollment counts, aggregate claims data) without authorization. Detailed claims history is PHI and requires the individual's written authorization. B is incorrect because plan sponsorship does not grant unlimited PHI access. C is incorrect because even plan administration functions do not permit disclosure of individual-level PHI without authorization or a qualified firewall certification. D is incorrect because it describes a separate disclosure from the physician, not the health plan's obligations.
Question 6 (Chapter 6)
A Utah-based EPO plan member requires non-emergency inpatient hospitalization. The member receives care at an out-of-network facility without prior authorization. Which statement correctly describes the plan's coverage for this service?
- A) The plan does not cover the service, as EPOs provide no coverage for out-of-network care except in emergencies.
- B) The plan covers the service at the in-network benefit level because EPOs allow out-of-network access with higher cost-sharing.
- C) The plan covers the service subject to the out-of-network deductible and coinsurance, similar to a PPO.
- D) The plan covers the service only if the member obtains a referral from their primary care physician.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
EPOs (Exclusive Provider Organizations) require members to use network providers for all non-emergency care; there is no coverage for out-of-network services except in true emergencies. Option B incorrectly describes EPOs as allowing out-of-network access with higher cost-sharing, which is a PPO feature. Option C incorrectly applies PPO-style out-of-network coverage to an EPO. Option D incorrectly assigns a referral requirement to EPOs, which is characteristic of HMOs, not EPOs.
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Practice Questions 7-12: Essential Benefits, Case Management and POS Plans
Essential health benefit categories, the goal of case management, identifying an HMO from a scenario, point-of-service cost-sharing, who must cover EHBs and prior authorization as utilization review.
Question 7 (Chapter 6)
Under Utah's implementation of the Affordable Care Act (ACA), a non-grandfathered individual health insurance plan must cover which of the following as an essential health benefit (EHB) category?
- A) Pediatric services, including oral and vision care
- B) Vision care for adults
- C) Long-term care services
- D) Chiropractic maintenance care
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The ACA defines ten categories of essential health benefits that non-grandfathered individual and small group plans must cover. Pediatric services, including oral and vision care, is one of these ten categories. Option B (vision care for adults) is not a standalone EHB category; adult vision is not required. Option C (long-term care services) is explicitly excluded from EHB requirements. Option D (chiropractic maintenance care) is not specified as an EHB category, though spinal manipulation may fall under rehabilitative services if medically necessary.
Question 8 (Chapter 6)
A Utah health plan utilizes a case management program for members diagnosed with congestive heart failure. A nurse works with the member to coordinate care, educate on self-management, and facilitate communication between providers. What is the primary goal of this case management activity?
- A) To improve health outcomes and reduce avoidable hospitalizations through coordinated care
- B) To reduce the plan's administrative expenses associated with claims processing
- C) To steer members toward the plan's preferred provider network for all services
- D) To determine the medical necessity of inpatient admissions concurrent with the stay
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Case management focuses on coordinating care for individuals with complex or chronic conditions to improve health outcomes, enhance quality of life, and reduce costs associated with avoidable complications or hospitalizations. Option B confuses case management with administrative cost containment; while it may reduce costs, it does so through improved health outcomes, not by reducing claims processing expenses. Option C describes network steering, which is a function of preferred-provider arrangements, not case management. Option D describes concurrent utilization review, which evaluates the necessity and appropriateness of ongoing inpatient care, not the longitudinal coordination characteristic of case management.
Question 9 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident with individual health insurance coverage needs to see a specialist for a suspected autoimmune disorder. The insured's plan requires them to first obtain a referral from their primary care physician (PCP) before the specialist visit will be covered. Which type of managed care plan is this most characteristic of?
- A) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
- B) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
- C) Point-of-Service (POS) plan
- D) Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The requirement to obtain a referral from a primary care physician before seeing a specialist is a defining characteristic of Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs), which use gatekeeping to control access to specialty care and manage costs. While Point-of-Service (POS) plans also typically have a PCP and may require referrals for out-of-network specialist visits, the scenario describes a requirement for the specialist visit to be covered at all, which aligns with the HMO model where out-of-network specialist care is generally not covered without a referral (and often not covered even with one, except in emergencies). PPOs and EPOs do not require referrals for specialist visits; PPOs allow out-of-network access at higher cost, and EPOs allow in-network specialist access without referrals but exclude out-of-network care except in emergencies.
Question 10 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident is considering a Point-of-Service (POS) plan. Which statement accurately describes the cost-sharing difference between in-network and out-of-network specialist visits under a typical POS plan?
- A) In-network visits require a referral and have higher cost-sharing; out-of-network visits do not require a referral and have lower cost-sharing.
- B) In-network visits require a referral and have lower cost-sharing; out-of-network visits do not require a referral and have higher cost-sharing.
- C) In-network visits require a referral and have lower cost-sharing; out-of-network visits do not require a referral but have higher cost-sharing.
- D) In-network visits do not require a referral and have lower cost-sharing; out-of-network visits require a referral and have higher cost-sharing.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Under a POS plan, in-network specialist visits typically require a referral from the primary care physician and have lower cost-sharing (e.g., lower copay/coinsurance). Out-of-network visits do not require a referral but result in higher cost-sharing for the insured (e.g., higher coinsurance rate or balance billing). Option C correctly captures this: referral required in-network for lower cost-sharing, no referral needed out-of-network but with higher cost-sharing. Option A reverses the cost-sharing. Option B incorrectly states out-of-network does not require a referral (true) but falsely claims it has lower cost-sharing. Option D incorrectly states in-network does not require a referral.
Question 11 (Chapter 6)
A Utah health insurance producer is explaining the Affordable Care Act's (ACA) essential health benefits (EHB) requirement to a client. Which statement accurately describes how EHB requirements apply in Utah's individual and small group markets?
- A) EHB requirements apply only to individual market plans; small group plans are exempt from covering all 10 EHB categories.
- B) EHB requirements apply only to plans sold through the federal marketplace; off-marketplace plans in Utah are exempt.
- C) EHB requirements apply to both individual and small group non-grandfathered plans, ensuring coverage of the 10 categories defined by federal law.
- D) EHB requirements apply to large group plans but not to individual or small group plans in Utah.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Under the ACA, essential health benefits (EHB) must be covered by all non-grandfathered health plans in the individual and small group markets, both inside and outside the Health Insurance Marketplace (exchange). Utah follows this federal rule. Option C correctly states that EHB requirements apply to both individual and small group non-grandfathered plans. Option A is incorrect because small group plans are not exempt. Option B is incorrect because EHB applies regardless of marketplace participation. Option D is incorrect because large group plans are not required to cover EHB (though they have other requirements), and individual/small group plans are required to do so.
Question 12 (Chapter 6)
A Utah health plan utilizes a prior authorization requirement for certain expensive prescription drugs. This is primarily an example of which cost-containment strategy?
- A) Utilization review
- B) Case management
- C) Disease management
- D) Provider network contracting
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Prior authorization is a utilization review technique where the health plan evaluates whether a prescribed service or drug is medically necessary and appropriate before providing coverage. It is a key tool for managing utilization and costs. Option A correctly identifies this as utilization review. Option B (case management) involves coordinating care for individuals with chronic conditions. Option C (disease management) focuses on managing specific diseases across a population. Option D (provider network contracting) refers to negotiating rates with providers, not reviewing individual service requests.
Practice Questions 13-17: Policy Provisions, Divorce Enrollment and Formularies
A hospital confinement requirement, case management for diabetes, special enrollment after divorce, POS against HMO and tiered prescription coinsurance.
Question 13 (Chapter 6)
A Utah health insurance policy states that it will cover skilled nursing facility (SNF) care, but only after a 3-day inpatient hospital stay. This requirement is an example of which provision commonly found in health insurance policies?
- A) Pre-existing condition exclusion
- B) Hospital confinement requirement
- C) Elimination period
- D) Coordination of benefits
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A hospital confinement requirement is a common provision in health insurance policies that stipulates that benefits for skilled nursing facility (SNF) care, home health care, or other services are only payable if the insured has first undergone a minimum inpatient hospital stay (often 3 days). This is not a pre-existing condition exclusion, elimination period (which refers to a time period before benefits begin, common in disability insurance), or coordination of benefits (which determines primary payer when multiple plans cover an individual). Option B correctly identifies this as a hospital confinement requirement.
Question 14 (Chapter 6)
A Utah health plan administers a case management program for members with diabetes. A nurse educator works with members to develop personalized care plans, provides education on glucose monitoring and diet, and coordinates with physicians and pharmacists. What is the primary goal of this case management activity?
- A) To reduce the plan's administrative expenses
- B) To improve health outcomes and reduce complications for members with diabetes
- C) To increase the plan's network provider reimbursement rates
- D) To shift costs from the plan to the members through higher cost-sharing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The primary goal of case management in health insurance is to improve health outcomes, enhance quality of care, and reduce healthcare costs by preventing complications and hospitalizations, particularly for members with chronic conditions like diabetes. This is achieved through patient education, care coordination, and support for self-management. Option B correctly identifies improving health outcomes and reducing complications as the goal. Option A is incorrect because case management focuses on clinical and member outcomes, not primarily administrative expense reduction. Option C is incorrect because case management does not aim to increase provider reimbursement rates. Option D is incorrect because case management aims to reduce overall costs through better care, not to shift costs to members.
Question 15 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident is covered under a group health plan that is self-funded by the employer under ERISA. The resident's spouse loses coverage due to divorce. The spouse wants to enroll in an individual market plan through the federal marketplace. Under HIPAA and ACA rules, which statement accurately describes the spouse's special enrollment rights?
- A) The spouse has no special enrollment rights because the group plan is self-funded and exempt from HIPAA portability provisions
- B) The spouse must wait for the annual open enrollment period because divorce is not a qualifying life event for special enrollment in the individual market
- C) The spouse has a 60-day special enrollment period to enroll in an individual market plan, triggered by the loss of other minimum essential coverage due to divorce
- D) The spouse has a 30-day special enrollment period under HIPAA, but only if the employer's plan is fully insured under Utah state law
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Loss of minimum essential coverage (MEC) is a qualifying life event that triggers a special enrollment period (SEP) in the individual market (both on and off the marketplace). Divorce resulting in loss of coverage under a group health plan — whether fully insured or self-funded — constitutes loss of MEC. The SEP is generally 60 days from the loss of coverage. HIPAA's portability provisions apply to both fully insured and self-funded group health plans (ERISA plans are subject to HIPAA). The ACA preserved and expanded these special enrollment rights. A is incorrect because self-funded plans are subject to HIPAA's portability and special enrollment rules. B is incorrect because divorce with loss of coverage is a qualifying event. D is incorrect because the SEP is 60 days (not 30) and applies regardless of whether the plan is fully insured or self-funded.
Question 16 (Chapter 6)
A Utah health insurance producer is explaining how a Point-of-Service (POS) plan differs from a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO). Which statement accurately describes a key difference?
- A) POS plans require referrals to see specialists, while HMOs do not.
- B) POS plans have no primary care physician requirement, while HMOs require one.
- C) POS plans allow out-of-network care at a higher cost, while HMOs typically do not cover out-of-network care except for emergencies.
- D) POS plans use indemnity reimbursement, while HMOs use managed care.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
POS plans, like HMOs, require a primary care physician and referrals for specialist care, but they allow members to seek care outside the network for a higher cost-sharing amount. HMOs generally do not cover out-of-network care except in emergencies. POS plans do not eliminate the PCP requirement, and both POS and HMOs are managed care models, not indemnity.
Question 17 (Chapter 6)
A Utah resident with individual health insurance under the ACA is prescribed a brand-name drug that has a generic equivalent available. The plan's formulary places the brand-name drug on a non-preferred tier with 40% coinsurance, while the generic is on a preferred tier with 10% coinsurance. The resident asks the pharmacist to dispense the brand-name drug despite the higher cost. Under the plan's design and typical pharmacy benefit management, what is the most likely outcome?
- A) The plan will cover the brand-name drug at the same 10% coinsurance rate as the generic to ensure therapeutic equivalence.
- B) The plan will cover the brand-name drug, but the resident will pay 40% coinsurance due to its non-preferred formulary tier placement.
- C) The plan will deny coverage for the brand-name drug entirely because a generic equivalent is available.
- D) The resident must pay the full cost of the brand-name drug out-of-pocket, as plans never cover non-preferred brand drugs.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Plans use formularies to encourage cost-effective prescribing by assigning different cost-sharing levels to drugs based on therapeutic equivalence and cost. A non-preferred brand drug typically incurs higher cost-sharing (e.g., 40% coinsurance) than a preferred generic (e.g., 10% coinsurance). If the resident chooses the brand-name drug when a generic is available, they pay the higher cost-sharing associated with that tier. The plan does not reduce the cost-sharing to match the generic's rate (A), nor does it automatically deny coverage simply because a generic exists (C). While the resident pays more, the plan still covers a portion (so D is incorrect); they are responsible for 40% of the allowed cost, not 100%.
The Mistakes That Cost Marks
Putting PPO rules on an EPO. An EPO covers no non-emergency out-of-network care. Out-of-network coverage at higher cost-sharing is a PPO or POS feature.
HMO against POS. Both use a primary care physician and referrals. A POS plan also lets you go out of network at higher cost. An HMO generally does not cover that care outside emergencies.
Mixing the cost-containment tools. Utilization review judges whether a service or drug is necessary before or during care. Case management coordinates care for complex patients. Disease management works across a population with one condition.
Getting the special enrollment window wrong. Loss of other minimum essential coverage, whether through job loss or divorce, opens a 60-day window. Do not pick the 30 or 90 day distractors.
Overstating essential health benefits. They apply to non-grandfathered individual and small group plans, inside and outside the marketplace, and long-term care is not one of the ten categories.
Your Next Step
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