17 Free Virginia Health Exam Practice Questions (2026)

Question 1 (Chapter 6)

A Virginia resident purchases an individual health insurance policy that covers only injuries resulting from accidents, such as fractures from a fall or lacerations from a car crash. The policy does not cover illnesses like the flu, diabetes, or cancer. What type of health insurance policy does this describe?

• A) Specified (dread) disease policy
• B) Accident-only insurance
• C) Hospital indemnity policy
• D) Critical illness insurance

Question 2 (Chapter 6)

Which of the following statements accurately describes a key difference between a noncancelable and a guaranteed renewable individual health insurance policy in Virginia?

• A) A noncancelable policy allows the insurer to increase premiums based on the insured's age, while a guaranteed renewable policy does not.
• B) A guaranteed renewable policy can be canceled by the insurer for any reason after the first year, while a noncancelable policy cannot.
• C) A guaranteed renewable policy requires the insured to pass a medical exam at each renewal, while a noncancelable policy does not.
• D) A noncancelable policy guarantees both renewability and level premiums, while a guaranteed renewable policy guarantees renewability but allows premium increases for a class of insureds.

Question 3 (Chapter 6)

A Virginia insurance agent is explaining the 'time limit on certain defenses' provision to a client. Which statement correctly describes how this uniform required provision functions in an individual health insurance policy?

• A) The insurer may deny a claim for any reason if submitted more than 60 days after the loss.
• B) After the policy has been in force for two years, the insurer cannot deny a claim based on a pre-existing condition unless it was fraudulently concealed.
• C) Claims must be paid within 30 days of receipt of proof of loss, or the insurer owes interest.
• D) The insurer has three years from the date of a loss to contest the validity of the policy or deny a claim based on a misrepresentation in the application.

Question 4 (Chapter 6)

A Virginia resident applies for an individual health insurance policy. During the application process, the insurer requests the applicant's written consent for an HIV test. Which Virginia regulation specifically governs the insurer's requirements for obtaining informed consent for HIV testing in connection with insurance underwriting?

• A) § 38.2-613.01
• B) § 38.2-3407.1
• C) 14VAC5-90-40
• D) § 38.2-508.4

Question 5 (Chapter 6)

Which of the following statements accurately describes the 'renewability clause' in an individual health insurance policy issued in Virginia?

• A) A noncancelable policy can be terminated by the insurer at any time if the insured's health deteriorates
• B) A guaranteed renewable policy ensures the insurer cannot cancel the policy or refuse to renew it except for nonpayment of premiums
• C) A conditionally renewable policy guarantees renewal as long as the insured remains employed full-time
• D) A renewable at the option of the insurer policy requires the insurer to provide a reason for non-renewal each year

Question 6 (Chapter 6)

A Virginia insurance agent delivers an individual health insurance policy to a policyholder. The policy includes a 'free look' provision. Under Virginia law (§ 38.2-3502), which of the following statements about the free look period is correct?

• A) The free look period is 10 days for all individual health insurance policies delivered in Virginia
• B) The free look period begins on the date the application was signed, not the date of policy delivery
• C) The free look period is at least 10 days, but the policy may provide a longer period, and the policyholder may return the policy for a full refund of premiums paid
• D) The free look period applies only if the policyholder has not filed any claims during the period

Question 7 (Chapter 7)

A Virginia resident purchases an individual disability income policy with a residual disability rider. After an injury, they can work part-time, earning 40% of their pre-disability income. How does the residual disability benefit typically calculate the monthly payment?

• A) Pays 100% of the monthly benefit because any income loss triggers full benefits.
• B) Pays 40% of the monthly benefit, matching the percentage of income still earned.
• C) Pays nothing unless the insured is totally disabled and unable to work in any occupation.
• D) Pays 60% of the monthly benefit, corresponding to the 60% income loss.

Question 8 (Chapter 7)

Which of the following best describes the 'gatekeeper' concept in a Virginia Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) plan?

• A) Members can self-refer to any specialist without prior approval.
• B) The HMO employs armed security personnel at facility entrances.
• C) Members receive higher reimbursement for using out-of-network providers.
• D) Members must obtain a referral from their primary care physician to see a specialist, except in emergencies.

Question 9 (Chapter 7)

A Virginia resident is enrolled in a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) plan. They visit an out-of-network specialist without a referral. How will their benefits most likely be affected?

• A) The service will be covered at the same in-network benefit level since PPOs have open panels.
• B) The service will be denied because all PPOs require referrals for specialist care.
• C) The member will pay nothing out-of-pocket due to the PPO's out-of-network maximum.
• D) The service will be covered, but at a lower reimbursement level, and the member may face balance billing.

Question 10 (Chapter 7)

A Virginia employer offers a group health plan that includes a coordination of benefits (COB) provision. An employee is covered under this plan and also under their spouse's group health plan. How does the COB provision typically function?

• A) The employee can receive reimbursement from both plans up to 200% of the actual expenses incurred.
• B) The employer's plan always pays secondary to any other group health plan.
• C) The employee must choose which plan to use for each claim; benefits cannot be combined.
• D) The plans coordinate so that the combined benefits do not exceed 100% of the allowable expenses, with the primary plan paying first and the secondary plan covering any remaining eligible costs up to 100% of the allowable amount.

Question 11 (Chapter 7)

A Virginia resident is covered under a group health plan through their employer. They experience a qualifying event and elect COBRA continuation coverage. How long can they typically maintain this coverage under federal COBRA rules, assuming no state extension applies?

• A) 9 months
• B) 12 months
• C) 36 months
• D) 18 months

Question 12 (Chapter 7)

Under Virginia's individual disability income insurance regulations (14VAC5-141-60), which of the following statements is true regarding the 'relation of earnings to insurance' provision (§ 38.2-3504(6)) as it applies to disability income policies?

• A) It allows the insured to purchase coverage exceeding their actual earned income to provide a profit during disability.
• B) It requires the insurer to increase the benefit amount annually if the insured's income increases, regardless of policy riders.
• C) It limits the maximum monthly disability benefit that can be purchased based on the insured's actual earned income to prevent overinsurance.
• D) It applies only to group disability policies, not individual policies.

Question 13 (Chapter 8)

A Virginia resident who is 68 years old and receives Social Security disability benefits is eligible for Medicare Part A. Which of the following statements about their Part A coverage is correct?

• A) They must pay a monthly premium for Part A because they are under 70.
• B) They are eligible for premium-free Part A if they or their spouse paid Medicare taxes for at least 40 quarters.
• C) Part A covers routine dental and vision exams as part of preventive services.
• D) Part A includes coverage for long-term custodial care in a nursing home.

Question 14 (Chapter 8)

A 72-year-old Virginia resident is comparing Medigap Plan G and Plan N. Both plans cover the Part A hospital deductible, but how do they differ in cost-sharing for Part B services?

• A) Plan N covers the Part B deductible; Plan G does not.
• B) Plan G includes foreign travel emergency coverage; Plan N excludes it entirely.
• C) Plan N pays 100% of skilled nursing facility coinsurance; Plan G pays only 50%.
• D) Plan G covers 100% of Part B coinsurance after the deductible; Plan N requires copayments for some office and emergency room visits.

Question 15 (Chapter 8)

A Virginia resident requires assistance with bathing and dressing due to chronic arthritis but does not need skilled nursing care. Which level of long-term care best describes their needs?

• A) Skilled care
• B) Intermediate care
• C) Respite care
• D) Custodial care

Question 16 (Chapter 8)

Which of the following is a benefit trigger that qualifies for benefits under a Virginia-regulated long-term care insurance policy, as defined in 14VAC5-200-187?

• A) The policyholder requires assistance with two or more activities of daily living (ADLs) due to a physical or cognitive impairment.
• B) The policyholder is diagnosed with any chronic illness, regardless of functional ability.
• C) The policyholder is hospitalized for more than 24 hours for a medical condition.
• D) The policyholder reaches age 75 and retires from full-time employment.

Question 17 (Chapter 8)

A 75-year-old Virginia resident is considering a Medicare SELECT policy. Which statement accurately describes a key feature of Medicare SELECT policies under Virginia regulations (14VAC5-170-90)?

• A) Medicare SELECT policies allow beneficiaries to use any provider that accepts Medicare, with higher cost-sharing for out-of-network providers.
• B) Medicare SELECT policies are only available to individuals under age 65 who qualify for Medicare due to disability.
• C) Medicare SELECT policies include prescription drug coverage as a standard benefit, eliminating the need for a separate Part D plan.
• D) Medicare SELECT policies require beneficiaries to use specific hospitals and, in some cases, specific doctors for non-emergency services to be covered.