17 Free South Carolina Life & Health Practice Questions: Accident and Sickness Concepts and Field Underwriting (2026)

14 min read|Updated 2026-10-23

How to Use This Set

This set covers two sections of the South Carolina Life, Accident and Health exam: Accident and Sickness: Other Insurance Concepts (5 items, 3.8% of the 130 scored questions) and Field Underwriting Procedures (8 items, 6.2%).

The questions are about what a producer does at the point of sale and what the contract's legal character means: recording applicant information, privacy duties, delivery and the free look period, receipts, subrogation and taxation. Answer each, then open its explanation.

Practice Questions 1-6: Recurrence, Privacy, Insurable Interest and Managed Care

When a new disability continues the old claim, protecting applicant information, who has insurable interest, HMO features, tax treatment of group disability benefits, and guaranteed renewability.

Question 1 (Chapter 6)

Under South Carolina law and standard disability income policy provisions, when is a subsequent disability period considered a recurrence of the original disability rather than a new claim?

  • A) If it occurs within 30 days of returning to full duty and is due to the same or related cause.
  • B) If it occurs within 6 months of returning to work and is due to the same injury or sickness.
  • C) Only if the insured has not received any benefits for the original disability period.
  • D) If the insured has not worked more than 10 days since the original disability began.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Most disability income policies define recurrent disability as a disability due to the same or related cause that occurs within a specified period (commonly 6 months) after returning to work on a full-time basis. This allows the claim to continue without a new elimination period. Option A’s 30-day window is too short and not standard. Option C is incorrect because benefit receipt does not determine recurrence. Option D misstates the work requirement and timeframe.

Question 2 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina producer is completing an application for accident and sickness insurance. Which action best demonstrates compliance with HIPAA privacy regulations and the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) during the application process?

  • A) Informing the applicant that their medical information may be shared with the insurer's marketing affiliates for promotional offers.
  • B) Storing the completed application in an unlocked file cabinet in the producer's home office for convenience.
  • C) Using the applicant's credit score to determine premium rates without disclosure, as permitted under South Carolina state law.
  • D) Obtaining the applicant's written authorization to obtain an MIB report and explaining how their personal information will be used, with access limited to underwriting purposes.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

HIPAA and FCRA require producers to protect applicants' personal and medical information. This includes obtaining written authorization before accessing reports like the MIB, limiting use of information to underwriting, and ensuring confidentiality. Option A violates HIPAA by allowing unauthorized sharing for marketing. Option B violates both HIPAA and FCRA by failing to secure sensitive information. Option C is incorrect; while credit information may be used in some insurance contexts, FCRA requires disclosure and authorization, and its use in health underwriting is highly restricted and not permitted for setting premiums in accident and sickness insurance in this manner.

Question 3 (Chapter 6)

In South Carolina, which of the following scenarios best establishes a valid insurable interest for an individual purchasing accident and sickness insurance on another person?

  • A) A distant cousin purchasing a policy on a relative they rarely see or communicate with.
  • B) A friend purchasing a policy on another friend solely because they believe it is a good investment.
  • C) A neighbor purchasing a policy on another neighbor's child without the parent's knowledge or consent.
  • D) A business partner purchasing disability income insurance on the other partner, whose death or disability would cause financial harm to the business.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Insurable interest exists when the policyholder would suffer a direct financial loss from the insured's disability, sickness, or death. In a business partnership, the disability of a partner could lead to lost profits, buyout costs, or operational harm, establishing a clear financial stake. Options A, B, and C lack a sufficient financial or legal relationship to constitute insurable interest; they are based on familial distance, speculative investment, or lack of relationship/consent, which do not meet the legal requirement.

Question 4 (Chapter 6)

In the context of managed care plans, which feature is most characteristic of a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) as opposed to a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)?

  • A) The ability to see any provider, in-network or out-of-network, without a referral and still receive partial reimbursement.
  • B) Requirement to select a primary care physician (PCP) who provides referrals for specialist care.
  • C) Higher premiums but lower out-of-pocket costs for out-of-network services.
  • D) No requirement for pre-authorization of any medical services.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

HMOs are characterized by a gatekeeper model where enrollees must select a primary care physician (PCP) who coordinates care and provides referrals for specialist visits. This helps manage utilization and costs. Option A describes a PPO or POS plan feature. Option C is inaccurate; HMOs often have lower premiums but may have higher costs for out-of-network care (which is often not covered). Option D is false; HMOs typically require pre-authorization for many services, especially specialist care and procedures.

Question 5 (Chapter 6)

Under South Carolina law, which of the following statements is true regarding the taxation of employer-paid premiums for group disability income insurance and the resulting benefits received by employees?

  • A) Employer-paid premiums are tax-deductible for the employer, but benefits received by employees are taxable as ordinary income.
  • B) Employer-paid premiums are tax-deductible for the employer, and benefits received by employees are tax-free.
  • C) Employer-paid premiums are not tax-deductible for the employer, and benefits received by employees are taxable as ordinary income.
  • D) Employer-paid premiums are not tax-deductible for the employer, and benefits received by employees are tax-free.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

For group disability income insurance, premiums paid by the employer are generally tax-deductible as a business expense. However, when the employer pays the premiums, the disability benefits received by employees are considered taxable income because the employee did not pay the premium with after-tax dollars. This contrasts with individual policies where after-tax premiums lead to tax-free benefits. Option B is incorrect because benefits are taxable when employer-paid. Option C is incorrect because employer-paid premiums are deductible. Option D is incorrect on both counts.

Question 6 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina resident has an individual disability income policy. They become disabled and begin receiving benefits. Which of the following actions by the insurer would most likely violate the policy's guaranteed renewable provision?

  • A) Increasing the premium due to the insured's change in occupation to a more hazardous job.
  • B) Canceling the policy because the insured made a misrepresentation on the original application.
  • C) Adding an exclusion for the specific condition that caused the disability.
  • D) Refusing to renew the policy at the end of the term because the insured has filed a claim.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

A guaranteed renewable policy guarantees the insurer cannot cancel or refuse to renew the policy based on the insured's health, claims history, or occupation changes—as long as premiums are paid. Refusing to renew due to a filed claim violates this provision. While the insurer can increase premiums for a class (not an individual) and can cancel for fraud or nonpayment, options A, B, and C describe permissible actions under certain conditions (class-based premium increase, fraud-based cancellation, or exclusion if not already covered and not violating other provisions). Option D is a direct violation of guaranteed renewability.

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Practice Questions 7-12: Field Underwriting and Delivery

What a producer records on an application, how an elimination period runs, how to handle a client already on Social Security disability, and the producer's duties at delivery.

Question 7 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina resident applies for an individual disability income policy. The producer notices the applicant frequently participates in high-risk activities like rock climbing. What is the producer's responsibility regarding this information during field underwriting?

  • A) Omit the information to avoid prejudicing the insurer's decision.
  • B) Inform the applicant that such activities automatically disqualify them from coverage.
  • C) Advise the applicant to stop the activities before applying, as the insurer will not ask about them.
  • D) Accurately record the information on the application as it is material to the risk being underwritten.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Participation in high-risk activities like rock climbing is material to the underwriting of disability income insurance because it increases the likelihood of injury and claim. The producer has a duty to accurately and completely record all material facts on the application. Omitting or misrepresenting such information could void the policy. Option A is incorrect and unethical. Option B is incorrect as such activities may lead to higher premiums or exclusions but not automatic disqualification. Option C is incorrect; the insurer will likely ask about hazardous activities, and the applicant should not be advised to misrepresent.

Question 8 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina resident has a disability income policy with a 90-day elimination period. They become disabled and are unable to work. On which day after the onset of disability would benefits typically begin, assuming the condition continues?

  • A) Day 1
  • B) Day 90
  • C) Day 91
  • D) Day 180
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

The elimination period (or waiting period) is the time that must pass after the onset of disability before benefits become payable. For a 90-day elimination period, benefits begin on the 91st day of continuous disability. Day 1 is the first day of disability; benefits do not start until after the full elimination period has elapsed. Option B is incorrect because day 90 is the last day of the elimination period. Option D is incorrect as it doubles the period unnecessarily.

Question 9 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina producer is completing an accident and sickness insurance application for a client who discloses they are currently receiving Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) benefits. What is the producer's responsibility regarding this information during field underwriting?

  • A) Inform the client that SSDI benefits automatically disqualify them from purchasing private disability income insurance.
  • B) Advise the client to terminate their SSDI benefits before applying for private coverage to avoid coordination of benefits issues.
  • C) Disclose the SSDI receipt to the insurer as it is relevant medical and financial information affecting risk assessment.
  • D) Omit this information from the application to prevent potential discrimination based on disability status.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

C is correct because producers must disclose all material facts known to them, including receipt of government disability benefits like SSDI, as this information is relevant to the insurer's underwriting decision regarding risk and potential coordination of benefits. A is incorrect because SSDI receipt does not automatically disqualify an individual from purchasing private disability income; it may affect benefit levels but is not a bar to coverage. B is incorrect and unethical; producers should never advise clients to terminate legitimate government benefits to secure private insurance. D is incorrect as it violates the producer's duty of honesty and full disclosure; omitting material information constitutes misrepresentation and can lead to policy rescission or denial of claims.

Question 10 (Chapter 6)

A producer in South Carolina is explaining the tax treatment of disability income benefits to a client. Which statement is accurate regarding individual disability income insurance premiums and benefits?

  • A) Premiums are tax-deductible, and benefits are received tax-free.
  • B) Premiums are paid with pre-tax dollars through a cafeteria plan, and benefits are fully taxable.
  • C) Both premiums and benefits are always taxable as ordinary income.
  • D) Premiums are paid with after-tax dollars, and benefits are received tax-free.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

For individually owned disability income insurance, premiums are paid with after-tax dollars (not deductible), and the benefits received are generally income tax-free because the premiums were not deducted. This contrasts with employer-paid plans where benefits may be taxable. Option A is incorrect because individual premiums are not deductible. Option B describes a pre-tax employer plan, not individual ownership. Option C is incorrect as benefits are not taxable when premiums are after-tax.

Question 11 (Chapter 6)

In the context of health insurance coordination of benefits, what is the primary purpose of a 'nonduplication of benefits' provision?

  • A) To allow the insured to receive payments from multiple policies exceeding 100% of actual medical expenses.
  • B) To designate which policy pays first when the insured is covered under more than one plan.
  • C) To eliminate the need for subrogation when a third party is liable for the injury.
  • D) To ensure that the total benefits paid by all insurance policies do not exceed 100% of the allowable expenses.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Nonduplication of benefits (often part of coordination of benefits) prevents the insured from profiting by ensuring that combined payments from all applicable insurance policies do not exceed 100% of the actual, allowable medical expenses incurred. Option A describes the opposite of nonduplication. Option B describes the determination of primary vs. secondary payer, which is a separate step in coordination. Option C is incorrect; subrogation addresses third-party liability and is unrelated to nonduplication between multiple health policies.

Question 12 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina producer delivers an individual accident and sickness policy to a client. The policy includes a 10-day free look provision as required by South Carolina law. The producer hands the policy to the client and says, 'You have 10 days to review this. If you don't want it, just throw it away.' Which required action has the producer failed to perform?

  • A) Obtain a signed delivery receipt acknowledging the free look period start date.
  • B) Explain the free look provision and the procedure for returning the policy for a full refund.
  • C) Collect the first modal premium payment at the time of delivery.
  • D) Provide a copy of the application to the insured at delivery.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

South Carolina law (S.C. Code § 38-65-10 et seq. and standard policy provisions) requires the producer to explain the free look provision and the specific procedure for returning the policy to obtain a full refund. Merely stating the time period without explaining the return process is insufficient. A is not a statutory requirement for the producer at delivery (though insurers track it). C is incorrect; premium may have been paid with application. D is a best practice but not the specific free look explanation duty.

Practice Questions 13-17: Contract Concepts, Receipts, Subrogation and Taxation

The aleatory contract, when a conditional receipt takes effect, workers' compensation history, health insurer subrogation, and why individual disability benefits are tax-free.

Question 13 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina producer is explaining the 'aleatory' characteristic of an insurance contract to a client purchasing an accident and sickness policy. Which statement accurately describes this characteristic?

  • A) The contract is prepared by the insurer and the insured must accept it as written, with no negotiation of terms.
  • B) Only the insurer makes a legally enforceable promise to pay benefits if a covered loss occurs.
  • C) The values exchanged by the parties are unequal and depend on an uncertain future event.
  • D) The contract is conditional on the insured performing certain duties, such as paying premiums and providing proof of loss.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Aleatory means the contract involves an exchange of unequal values that depends on a contingent, uncertain event (the loss). The insured pays a relatively small premium; the insurer may pay a large benefit — but only if the uncertain event occurs. A describes 'adhesion.' B describes 'unilateral.' D describes 'conditional.' These are the four distinct legal characteristics of insurance contracts.

Question 14 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina producer collects the initial premium from an applicant for an accident and sickness policy and issues a conditional receipt. The applicant completes a medical exam two days later. The insurer's underwriter approves the application at standard rates five days after the exam. When does coverage become effective under the conditional receipt?

  • A) The date the application was signed.
  • B) The date the initial premium was collected.
  • C) The date the medical exam was completed.
  • D) The date the underwriter approved the application.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

A conditional receipt typically provides that coverage is effective on the date of the last required act (usually the medical exam), provided the applicant is found insurable at standard rates. The receipt is 'conditional' on the applicant being an acceptable risk. Since the exam was the last requirement, and the applicant was approved at standard rates, coverage relates back to the exam date (C). A and B are incorrect because the condition (insurability) had not yet been verified. D is incorrect because the effective date relates back to the completion of underwriting requirements, not the approval decision date.

Question 15 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina producer is completing an accident and sickness insurance application with a client who discloses they are currently receiving workers' compensation benefits for a repetitive stress injury. The client asks if this will affect their new policy. Which statement accurately describes the producer's responsibility and the likely policy outcome?

  • A) The producer should advise the client to omit the workers' compensation claim from the application to avoid a rating or exclusion.
  • B) The producer must accurately record the workers' compensation claim on the application; the insurer will likely apply an exclusion rider for the specific condition or related conditions.
  • C) The producer should inform the client that workers' compensation benefits are irrelevant to individual disability income underwriting and need not be disclosed.
  • D) The producer must decline to submit the application because any applicant receiving workers' compensation is automatically uninsurable for disability income coverage.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Correct answer is B. The producer has a duty to accurately record all material information on the application (S.C. Code §38-57-10 et seq. on unfair trade practices; general insurance contract principles of utmost good faith). An existing workers' compensation claim for a repetitive stress injury is material to underwriting a disability income policy. The insurer will typically exclude the specific condition or related conditions via an exclusion rider, or rate the policy, rather than decline coverage outright. Option A suggests fraud (concealment). Option C is false — workers' comp history is highly relevant. Option D is false — receipt of workers' comp does not make someone automatically uninsurable.

Question 16 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina resident is injured in an automobile accident caused by a negligent third party. The resident's health insurer pays $30,000 in medical benefits under a policy that includes a subrogation clause. The resident later settles with the third party's auto insurer for $120,000, which includes compensation for medical expenses, lost wages, and pain and suffering. The health insurer asserts a subrogation right. Which statement is accurate under South Carolina law?

  • A) The health insurer is entitled to recover the full $30,000 from the settlement proceeds, regardless of whether the insured has been made whole.
  • B) The health insurer's subrogation right is limited to the portion of the settlement specifically allocated to medical expenses.
  • C) The health insurer cannot assert subrogation because South Carolina follows the 'made whole' doctrine, which requires the insured to be fully compensated before the insurer recovers.
  • D) The health insurer can recover only if the settlement agreement explicitly states that a portion is for medical expenses.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Correct answer is C. South Carolina follows the 'made whole' doctrine for subrogation in health insurance: the insured must be fully compensated (made whole) for their total damages before the insurer can exercise its subrogation right. Since the $120,000 settlement covers medical expenses, lost wages, and pain and suffering, and there is no indication the insured has been made whole, the insurer's subrogation right is subordinate. Option A is incorrect — South Carolina does not allow full recovery regardless of the made whole doctrine. Option B is incorrect — the allocation in the settlement does not override the made whole doctrine. Option D is incorrect — the right depends on the made whole doctrine, not settlement language.

Question 17 (Chapter 6)

A South Carolina producer is explaining the tax treatment of disability income benefits to a client who pays premiums with after-tax dollars for an individual policy. The client becomes disabled and begins receiving monthly benefits. Which statement is correct regarding the federal income tax treatment of these benefits?

  • A) The benefits are fully taxable as ordinary income because the policy provides disability coverage.
  • B) The benefits are partially taxable based on the ratio of employer contributions to total premiums paid.
  • C) The benefits are received income tax-free because the premiums were paid with after-tax dollars.
  • D) The benefits are taxable only if they exceed the insured's pre-disability income.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

For individual disability income insurance where premiums are paid with after-tax dollars, the benefits received are not considered taxable income under federal law. This is because the premiums were paid from income that had already been taxed. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: benefits are not automatically taxable just because the policy provides disability coverage (A), there is no partial taxation based on employer contributions in an individual policy context (B), and taxation does not depend on whether benefits exceed pre-disability income (D).

The Mistakes That Cost Marks

Leaving material facts off an application. A producer records dangerous hobbies, existing disability benefits and workers' compensation claims accurately. Advising an applicant to omit something is never the answer, and a known exclusion or rating is a better outcome than a voided policy.

Misreading recurrence. A disability from the same or a related cause shortly after returning to work usually continues the original claim without a new elimination period. The exact window is set by the policy.

Mixing up contract characteristics. Aleatory means unequal values exchanged on an uncertain event. Adhesion means one party writes the terms. Unilateral means one party's promise is enforceable. Conditional means performance depends on a condition.

Mistaking who owes what at delivery. Separate the producer's delivery duties from the insurer's refund duty when a policy is returned during the free look period.

Misapplying a conditional receipt. Coverage relates back to the date of the last required act only if the applicant proves insurable at the rate applied for.

Getting subrogation wrong. Read the facts for whether the insured has been fully compensated before an insurer asserts its right.

Reversing the tax rule. Benefits from an individual policy paid with after-tax premiums are not taxed. Employer-paid group benefits are.

Your Next Step

Review every question you missed against the outline section it belongs to, then run the set again a few days later. When the misses stop clustering, move on to the next section.

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