17 Free South Carolina Life & Health Practice Questions: Life Application, Underwriting and Retirement Concepts (2026)

14 min read|Updated 2026-10-23

How to Use This Set

This set covers two life sections of the South Carolina Life, Accident and Health exam: Completing the Application, Underwriting, and Delivering the Policy (12 items, 9.2% of the 130 scored questions) and Retirement and Other Insurance Concepts (8 items, 6.2%).

It follows a policy from application to delivery: receipts and when coverage begins, how a payment can go wrong, who can be named beneficiary, how underwriters price hazards, and the business and retirement uses of life insurance. The 17 questions are scenarios. Answer first, then open the explanation.

Practice Questions 1-6: Receipts, Delivery, Group Plans and Beneficiaries

Conditional receipts and the date coverage begins, cash premiums and anti-money laundering reporting, noncontributory group plans, and the people and trusts that can receive proceeds.

Question 1 (Chapter 3)

During the application process, a South Carolina producer collects the initial premium and issues a conditional receipt. The applicant dies two days later before underwriting is complete. Under what condition would the death benefit be payable?

  • A) Only if the applicant would have been approved as a standard risk.
  • B) If the applicant was insurable at the standard rate or better on the date of the application.
  • C) Only if the premium was collected by check and has cleared the bank.
  • D) Always, as the conditional receipt provides immediate full coverage upon premium payment.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

B is correct because a conditional receipt typically provides coverage only if the applicant would have been accepted at the rate applied for (usually standard or better) on the application date. A is too narrow (only standard risk ignores better rates). C is incorrect as payment method doesn't determine coverage under a conditional receipt. D is incorrect because coverage is conditional, not automatic.

Question 2 (Chapter 3)

A client attempts to pay a $50,000 life insurance premium in cash to a South Carolina producer. What action is the producer required to take under the USA PATRIOT Act and anti-money laundering regulations?

  • A) Accept the cash payment and issue the policy immediately to avoid losing the sale.
  • B) Refuse the cash payment and insist on a check or electronic transfer without further action.
  • C) Report the transaction to the insurer's anti-money laundering compliance officer as a suspicious activity.
  • D) Keep the cash and submit a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) directly to the IRS.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

C is correct because producers must report suspicious transactions, such as large cash payments, to their insurer's AML compliance officer. A is incorrect as accepting and issuing the policy ignores reporting duties. B is incomplete as refusal alone doesn't fulfill the reporting requirement for suspicious activity. D is incorrect because while CTRs are for cash over $10,000, producers report to their insurer's AML officer, not directly to the IRS in this context.

Question 3 (Chapter 3)

When delivering a life insurance policy in South Carolina, what must the producer explain to the client regarding the policy's effective date if a conditional receipt was issued?

  • A) Coverage began on the date the application was signed, regardless of insurability.
  • B) Coverage began on the date of the medical exam, if one was required.
  • C) Coverage begins only after the first annual premium is paid in full.
  • D) Coverage may have begun on the application date or the date of the medical exam, but only if the applicant was insurable at the applied rate.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because conditional receipts typically make coverage effective as of the application or exam date, but only if the applicant would have been approved at the applied rate. A is incorrect as it ignores the insurability condition. B is incorrect as it omits the application date possibility and the insurability requirement. C is incorrect as it describes a different receipt type (e.g., binders may work differently, but conditional receipts are tied to application/exam dates).

Question 4 (Chapter 3)

In South Carolina, what is a defining characteristic of a noncontributory group life insurance plan?

  • A) The employer pays 100% of the premium, and all eligible employees are automatically covered.
  • B) Employees must pay at least 50% of the premium to be eligible for coverage.
  • C) Coverage is only available to employees who have worked for the company for at least 10 years.
  • D) Employees can choose their coverage amount up to a maximum set by the employer.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct because noncontributory means the employer pays the full premium and eligible employees are covered without contributing. B is incorrect as it describes a contributory plan. C is incorrect as eligibility is not based on tenure in standard noncontributory plans. D is incorrect as it describes optional employee-elected coverage, which may be contributory or noncontributory but doesn't define the noncontributory nature.

Question 5 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina producer is completing a life insurance application for a client who wants to name a minor child as the primary beneficiary. The client asks if they need to appoint a guardian for the proceeds. What is the producer's correct response regarding South Carolina law?

  • A) South Carolina law requires a guardian or custodian to be named for any minor beneficiary to receive the death benefit directly.
  • B) A guardian must be appointed only if the death benefit exceeds $10,000.
  • C) The insurance company will automatically hold the proceeds in trust until the child reaches the age of majority, so no action is needed.
  • D) Naming a minor as beneficiary is prohibited under South Carolina statutes for life insurance policies.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct. A minor cannot give a valid receipt for life insurance proceeds, so the proceeds must be paid to a court-appointed guardian, to a custodian under South Carolina's Uniform Transfers to Minors Act, or to a trust established for the child. B is wrong because there is no dollar threshold. C is wrong because the insurer does not create a trust on its own; the policyowner must arrange one. D is wrong because naming a minor is permitted, but with these safeguards.

Question 6 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina client owns a life insurance policy on their spouse and has designated their revocable living trust as the owner and beneficiary. The client later divorces and wants to change the beneficiary to their new partner. What is required to make this change?

  • A) The trustee of the revocable living trust must sign a beneficiary change form, as the trust is the policy owner.
  • B) The client can simply notify the insurance company verbally of the change.
  • C) The client must first amend the trust document before the insurance company will accept a beneficiary change.
  • D) No change is permitted after a divorce; the ex-spouse remains the contingent beneficiary.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Since the revocable living trust is the legal owner of the policy, only the trustee has the authority to change the beneficiary, regardless of the divorce. The client, as settlor, may still serve as trustee and can direct the change, but the trustee's signature is required on the insurer's form. Option B is incorrect because beneficiary changes require written documentation. Option C is incorrect because while amending the trust may be part of the client's estate planning, the insurance company only requires the trustee's authorization to change the beneficiary on the policy. Option D is incorrect as there is no automatic prohibition on changing beneficiaries after divorce.

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Practice Questions 7-12: Premium Payment, Business Uses and Underwriting Information

A premium check that does not clear, buy-sell funding, privacy and credit-reporting rules for underwriting information, and unfair trade practices at the application stage.

Question 7 (Chapter 3)

In South Carolina, a life insurance policy is delivered to the applicant who paid the initial premium with a check. The check is later returned for insufficient funds. What is the effect on the policy's coverage if the insurer issued a conditional receipt at the time of application?

  • A) Coverage remains in force because the conditional receipt guarantees protection regardless of payment.
  • B) Coverage may be considered in force from the date of application only if the insurer receives payment within a specified grace period, typically 60 days.
  • C) Coverage is void from the outset because the initial premium was not successfully paid.
  • D) The policy automatically converts to a term life insurance policy if the check is not honored.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

A conditional receipt only provides coverage if the insurer would have issued the policy based on the information in the application and if the initial premium is paid. If the check for the initial premium is returned for insufficient funds, the premium was not paid, and thus no coverage ever attaches, even with a conditional receipt. Option A is incorrect because the conditional receipt is not a guarantee; it is conditional on insurability and payment. Option B is incorrect because there is no automatic grace period for the initial premium to convert a conditional receipt into coverage; the premium must be paid. Option D is incorrect as the type of policy does not change due to a payment failure.

Question 8 (Chapter 3)

In South Carolina, a producer is discussing the use of a life insurance policy to fund a buy-sell agreement between two business partners. What is the primary advantage of using life insurance for this purpose?

  • A) It provides immediate liquidity to purchase the deceased partner's share upon their death.
  • B) It allows the business to deduct the premium payments as a current business expense.
  • C) It guarantees that the surviving partner will receive a salary continuation from the business.
  • D) It eliminates the need for a written buy-sell agreement between the partners.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

The primary purpose of life insurance in a buy-sell agreement is to provide the surviving partner(s) with immediate, tax-free cash to buy out the deceased partner's interest in the business, ensuring a smooth transition and financial security. Option B is incorrect because premiums paid by the business on a partner's life are generally not deductible as a current expense. Option C is incorrect as life insurance funds the purchase of ownership interest, not salary continuation. Option D is incorrect because a written buy-sell agreement is essential; life insurance merely funds it.

Question 9 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina producer is explaining the USA PATRIOT Act and anti-money laundering requirements to a client applying for life insurance. Which statement accurately describes the producer's obligation?

  • A) The producer must report suspicious transactions, such as a large cash payment for a life insurance policy, as part of anti-money laundering compliance.
  • B) The producer must report any cash premium payment over $1,000 to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN).
  • C) The producer must verify the client's identity using a government-issued photo ID for all applications.
  • D) The producer is exempt from anti-money laundering requirements if the policy face amount is less than $100,000.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct because under the USA PATRIOT Act and anti-money laundering regulations, producers must report suspicious transactions, such as unusually large cash payments that may indicate money laundering. B is incorrect because the threshold for reporting cash transactions is $10,000, not $1,000. C is incorrect while identity verification is part of customer identification programs, it is not explicitly required by the USA PATRIOT Act for all insurance applications in the manner described. D is incorrect because there is no face amount exemption for anti-money laundering requirements in life insurance.

Question 10 (Chapter 3)

During the underwriting process for a South Carolina life insurance applicant, the producer receives an attending physician's statement (APS) that indicates the applicant has a controlled heart condition. The applicant has also signed an authorization for the release of medical information. Which action by the producer would violate the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) in this situation?

  • A) Sharing the APS with the insurer's underwriting department for risk classification.
  • B) Using the medical information solely to determine the applicant's eligibility and premium rate.
  • C) Providing a summary of the medical findings to the applicant upon request, as required by FCRA.
  • D) Discussing the specific details of the applicant's heart condition with a colleague who is not involved in the underwriting or processing of the application.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) governs the use of consumer reports, which include medical information obtained for insurance underwriting purposes. FCRA requires that such information be used only for the purpose for which it was obtained (underwriting) and shared only with those who have a legitimate need to know for that purpose. Discussing specific medical details with a colleague not involved in the application process violates FCRA's confidentiality and use restrictions. Options A, B, and C are permissible: sharing with underwriting (A), using for eligibility/rating (B), and providing information to the applicant upon request (C) are all allowed under FCRA.

Question 11 (Chapter 3)

Under South Carolina law, which of the following actions by a producer during the life insurance application process would most likely constitute an unfair trade practice under the state's Unfair Trade Practices Act?

  • A) Providing a client with a balanced illustration showing both guaranteed and non-guaranteed elements of a policy.
  • B) Recommending a policy replacement that is in the client's best interest after a thorough comparison.
  • C) Using a copyrighted sales presentation from the insurer with permission.
  • D) Failing to disclose a material mistake in the application after it has been signed, knowing the insurer relied on the incorrect information.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Knowingly failing to disclose a material mistake in an application after it has been signed, especially when the producer is aware the insurer relied on the incorrect information, constitutes misrepresentation or concealment of a material fact. This is a prohibited unfair trade practice under South Carolina's Unfair Trade Practices Act (S.C. Code Title 38, Chapter 57), as it deceives the insurer and can lead to an improperly underwritten policy. Option A is permissible and encouraged. Option B describes ethical replacement advice. Option C is permissible if permission is granted.

Question 12 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina producer is completing a life insurance application for a client who is both the applicant and proposed insured. The client is 68 years old and wants to purchase a $250,000 term life policy. During the application, the client discloses they are a private pilot who flies recreationally 50 hours per year. Which underwriting action is most appropriate for this risk?

  • A) Decline the application due to the high-risk occupation.
  • B) Issue the policy at standard rates as recreational flying is not considered hazardous.
  • C) Apply a flat extra premium based on the frequency and type of flying activity.
  • D) Require the client to obtain a student pilot license before considering the application.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

C is correct. Recreational flying is an avocation hazard that underwriters rate by frequency, aircraft type and pilot experience, typically with a flat extra premium (a fixed dollar amount per $1,000 of coverage) rather than a decline. A is wrong because recreational flying alone is not grounds for decline. B is wrong because flying is a hazardous avocation. D is irrelevant; a student certificate is for beginners and is not an underwriting requirement.

Practice Questions 13-17: Beneficiaries, Rating, Retirement Plans and Contract Rules

How underwriters rate hazards, which retirement plan fits a self-employed client, insurable interest, and what the suicide clause does after its period.

Question 13 (Chapter 3)

In South Carolina, a life insurance policy is delivered to a client who is 62 years old and has named their 8-year-old grandchild as the primary beneficiary. The client asks if they need to appoint a guardian or custodian for the proceeds under South Carolina law. What is the producer's correct response?

  • A) No, minors can directly receive life insurance proceeds in South Carolina without restriction.
  • B) Yes, a court-appointed guardian is always required for any minor beneficiary.
  • C) No, but the proceeds must be paid to a legal guardian or custodian if the beneficiary is a minor, or to a trust established for the minor's benefit.
  • D) Yes, but only if the death benefit exceeds $50,000.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

South Carolina law does not allow minors to directly receive life insurance proceeds. Proceeds must be paid to a court-appointed guardian, a legal guardian, or a custodian (e.g., under UTMA), or to a trust established for the minor's benefit. Option A is incorrect—minors cannot receive proceeds directly. Option B is too broad; a court-appointed guardian is not always required if a trust or custodial account is used. Option D is incorrect; the requirement applies regardless of the benefit amount.

Question 14 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina client is applying for a life insurance policy and discloses they are a private pilot who flies recreationally 50 hours per year. During underwriting, the insurer is most likely to classify this risk using which method?

  • A) Standard rate, as recreational flying is not considered a risk factor by insurers.
  • B) Flat extra premium, where a fixed dollar amount per $1,000 of coverage is added annually.
  • C) Table rating, where an additional premium is added based on the perceived risk.
  • D) Decline coverage, as all aviation activities are automatically uninsurable.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

For aviation risks like recreational piloting, insurers typically apply a flat extra premium—a fixed dollar amount per $1,000 of coverage added annually—to account for the increased risk. This is distinct from a table rating (which is a percentage increase based on risk class) and is not severe enough to warrant an automatic decline. Option A is incorrect because recreational flying is considered a risk. Option C describes table rating, which is used for health impairments, not aviation. Option D is incorrect because aviation risks are insurable with appropriate premium adjustments.

Question 15 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina producer is discussing retirement plan options with a self-employed client. The client wants to make tax-deductible contributions and have the flexibility to contribute varying amounts each year based on business profitability. Which retirement plan is best suited for this client's needs?

  • A) A traditional Individual Retirement Account (IRA) with a fixed annual contribution limit.
  • B) A Simplified Employee Pension (SEP) IRA, which allows for tax-deductible contributions and flexible annual funding.
  • C) A Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees (SIMPLE) IRA, which requires mandatory employer contributions.
  • D) A Roth IRA, which offers tax-free withdrawals but non-deductible contributions.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

A SEP IRA is ideal for self-employed individuals as it allows tax-deductible contributions and flexible annual funding based on business income, with no requirement to contribute every year. A traditional IRA has a fixed low limit and may not be deductible if the client is covered by another plan. A SIMPLE IRA requires employer contributions and is designed for businesses with employees. A Roth IRA does not provide tax-deductible contributions.

Question 16 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina producer is completing an application for a client who wants to purchase a life insurance policy on their fiancé(e). The client and fiancé(e) are not yet married. What is the key underwriting consideration regarding insurable interest in this situation?

  • A) Insurable interest does not exist because the parties are not married, so the policy cannot be issued.
  • B) Insurable interest exists based on the expectation of marriage and the financial/emotional relationship, so the policy can be issued.
  • C) Insurable interest only exists if the client has already paid for the wedding venue.
  • D) Insurable interest requires the fiancé(e) to be named as the policy owner, not the insured.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Insurable interest can exist between engaged couples due to the reasonable expectation of marriage and the associated financial and emotional ties. The policy can be issued if this interest is demonstrated. It is not required to be married (A), payment for a venue is irrelevant (C), and ownership/insured roles are flexible as long as interest exists (D).

Question 17 (Chapter 3)

A South Carolina producer is explaining the suicide clause in a life insurance policy to a client. The client asks what happens if the insured dies by suicide after the suicide clause period has expired. What is the correct outcome?

  • A) The death benefit is reduced by 50%.
  • B) No death benefit is payable under any circumstances if suicide is the cause of death.
  • C) The death benefit is paid in full, as the suicide clause no longer applies.
  • D) The death benefit is paid only if the policyowner can prove the insured was of sound mind at the time of application.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

After the suicide clause period (typically one or two years) has expired, the full death benefit is payable even if the cause of death is suicide. The clause only limits the insurer's liability during the initial period. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: there is no automatic reduction, benefit is not denied after the period, and mental state at application is not a factor for payment post-clause expiration.

The Mistakes That Cost Marks

Reading a conditional receipt as instant coverage. It pays only if the applicant was insurable at the rate applied for, and only if the premium was actually paid. A check that bounces means no coverage ever attached.

Mixing up who reports suspicious cash. A producer who is offered a large cash premium reports to the insurer's anti-money laundering compliance officer. Refusing the cash alone does not meet the duty.

Forgetting that minors cannot give a valid receipt. A minor beneficiary means a guardian, a custodian or a trust, not a direct payout.

Confusing a flat extra with a table rating. A flat extra adds a fixed amount per $1,000 of coverage, typically for avocations such as recreational flying. Table rating adds a percentage and is used for health impairments.

Choosing the wrong retirement plan. SEP funding is flexible and deductible. SIMPLE needs employer contributions. A Roth gives no deduction.

Sharing underwriting information. Medical information gathered for underwriting is for underwriting. Discussing the details with a colleague who is not involved is a violation, not a courtesy.

Misreading insurable interest and the suicide clause. Engaged couples can have insurable interest. After the suicide clause period, the full death benefit is payable.

Your Next Step

Review every question you missed against the outline section it belongs to, then run the set again a few days later. When the misses stop clustering, move on to the next section.

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