25 Free Tennessee Life & Health Exam Practice Questions (2026)
How to Use This Tennessee Question Set
Tennessee does not issue a single Life & Health exam. To hold both lines of authority you sit two separate Pearson VUE exams: the Life Agent exam and the Accident and Health Agent exam. Each delivers 68 scored questions (50 general-knowledge items plus 18 Tennessee-specific items) and 9 unscored pretest questions mixed in without being labeled — 77 items per sitting, with no way to tell a pretest question from a scored one. Passing either exam is a scaled score of 70, not a raw percentage, and each exam costs $55 per attempt at a test center, or $80 for an OnVUE bundle covering one online-proctored attempt at each exam. There is no combined sitting and no discount for taking both at a test center — a candidate who wants the full Life & Health license has to pass both exams on their own terms.
Pearson VUE's content outline #124301, effective October 7, 2026, splits each exam into a General Knowledge document and a Tennessee Specific document, even though both are sat together in one sitting. On the Life Agent exam: Types of Policies (15 of 68 items), Policy Riders, Provisions, Options and Exclusions (15), Completing the Application, Underwriting and Delivering the Policies (12), Retirement and Other Insurance Concepts (8), Tennessee Laws and Departmental Rules Common to Life, Accident and Health, Property and Casualty Insurance (14), and Tennessee Laws and Departmental Rules Pertinent to Life Insurance Only (4). On the Accident and Health Agent exam: Types of Policies (16 of 68), Policy Provisions, Clauses and Riders (15), Social Insurance (6), Other Insurance Concepts (5), Field Underwriting Procedures (8), the same 14-item common-law section, and 4 items of Tennessee Laws and Departmental Rules Pertinent to Accident and Health Insurance Only.
These 25 questions come from LanePrep's Tennessee Life, Accident & Health quiz bank and sample both exams in roughly that proportion: 11 from the three Life Agent chapters (types of life insurance policies, policy riders and provisions, and the application, underwriting and retirement concepts tested alongside them), 10 from the three Accident and Health chapters (A&H policy types, A&H provisions and social insurance, and other A&H concepts with field underwriting and Tennessee A&H law), 3 from the Tennessee law chapter common to both exams — producer licensing, unfair trade practices and the Commissioner's own authority — and 1 from the chapter covering Tennessee law pertinent to life insurance only. Each question shows its chapter, so a miss tells you exactly which chapter of the course to go back to. For more depth once you have scored yourself here, the Life Agent exam and the Accident and Health Agent exam each have their own dedicated question set below.
Tennessee does not currently require a pre-licensing course for either line: the legislature repealed the mandatory course-of-study requirement through Public Chapter 57 of 2023, effective March 21, 2023. That makes a self-check like this one more useful, not less — nobody sits through a state-mandated class that would otherwise have flagged the gaps for you first.
Work them before you read the answer. Every question has the explanation folded underneath it. Guessing and then reading is worth more than reading and then agreeing.
Practice Questions 1-11: Life Agent Exam Sample
The Life Agent exam leans hardest on policy types, the riders and provisions that govern a policy once it is in force, and the underwriting and retirement concepts tested alongside them. These eleven questions move through permanent and term life products, a deferred annuity, a waiver of premium rider, the incontestability clause and the war exclusion, and three of the application, underwriting and retirement questions that round out the Life Agent exam's general-knowledge sections.
Question 1 (Chapter 1)
A Tennessee resident, John, purchases a life insurance policy where the premiums remain constant throughout his entire life, and the death benefit also stays level. The policy builds cash value that he can access. This policy is designed to cover him until age 100, at which point the cash value will equal the death benefit. What type of policy did John most likely purchase?
- A) Limited-pay whole life
- B) Decreasing term life
- C) Universal life
- D) Ordinary whole life
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Ordinary whole life insurance is characterized by level premiums and a level death benefit for the entire life of the insured, building cash value that matures at age 100. Limited-pay whole life has level premiums but only for a specified period. Decreasing term life has a decreasing death benefit and no cash value. Universal life offers flexible premiums and death benefits.
Question 2 (Chapter 1)
A young family in Tennessee purchases a life insurance policy to cover the outstanding balance of their 30-year mortgage. They want a policy where the death benefit decreases over time, mirroring the declining balance of their loan, and provides coverage only for the duration of the mortgage. What type of policy is most suitable for this situation?
- A) Level term life
- B) Universal life
- C) Ordinary whole life
- D) Decreasing term life
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Decreasing term life insurance is specifically designed for situations where the need for coverage diminishes over time, such as to cover a mortgage or other loans. The death benefit decreases annually, while the premium usually remains level. Level term life has a constant death benefit. Universal life and ordinary whole life are permanent policies with cash value, not typically used for a declining debt.
Question 3 (Chapter 1)
A Tennessee client is considering a life insurance policy that offers the flexibility of universal life but also allows for the cash value to be invested in a separate account, similar to variable life. This means the client is exposed to market risk and requires a securities license for the agent selling it. What type of policy is this?
- A) Variable universal life
- B) Indexed universal life
- C) Interest-sensitive whole life
- D) Adjustable whole life
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Variable universal life combines the premium and death benefit flexibility of universal life with the investment choices and market risk of variable life. Its cash value is held in a separate account and fluctuates with market performance, requiring the agent to hold a securities license. Indexed universal life ties cash value to an index but does not involve direct investment in a separate account with market risk. Interest-sensitive whole life's cash value is tied to current interest rates. Adjustable whole life is an older term for a policy that allows adjustments to face amount and premium, but not direct investment in a separate account.
Question 4 (Chapter 1)
Ms. Johnson, a 40-year-old professional in Tennessee, wants to start saving for retirement through an annuity. She plans to make regular contributions over the next 25 years and then begin receiving income payments when she turns 65. Which type of annuity, based on its payout timing, should she choose?
- A) Immediate Annuity
- B) Single Premium Annuity
- C) Variable Annuity
- D) Deferred Annuity
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A Deferred Annuity is designed for accumulation over a period of time, with income payments commencing at a future date. This perfectly matches Ms. Johnson's goal of saving for 25 years and then receiving income. An Immediate Annuity begins payments within one year, a Single Premium Annuity refers to the payment method (not necessarily timing), and a Variable Annuity refers to the investment type.
Question 5 (Chapter 2)
An insured in Memphis has a life insurance policy with a Waiver of Premium rider. He suffers a total disability that lasts for eight months before he fully recovers. What is the insurer's obligation regarding the premiums paid during this period?
- A) The insurer will waive only the premiums due after the 8-month mark, with no refund for the waiting period.
- B) The insurer will refund all premiums paid during the initial 6-month waiting period and waive all subsequent premiums while the disability lasted.
- C) The insurer will pay a monthly disability income to the insured in addition to waiving the premiums.
- D) The insurer will reduce the death benefit by the amount of the waived premiums.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Under a standard Waiver of Premium rider, there is typically a 6-month waiting period. If the disability is total and permanent (or exceeds the waiting period), the insurer refunds the premiums paid during those 6 months and waives future premiums for the duration of the disability. It does not provide income (that is a Disability Income rider) nor does it reduce the death benefit.
Question 6 (Chapter 2)
An insurer discovers three years after issuing a policy that the insured lied about a history of heart disease on the application. Under the policy's standard Incontestability provision, what action can the insurer take?
- A) The insurer cannot contest the claim or void the policy because the two-year period has passed.
- B) Void the policy and return all premiums.
- C) Sue the insured for insurance fraud and triple damages.
- D) Reduce the death benefit to what the premium would have purchased if the truth were known.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Life insurance policies contain a standard Incontestability provision of two years. After the policy has been in force for two years during the lifetime of the insured, the insurer cannot contest the policy based on misstatements in the application (except for non-payment of premiums).
Question 7 (Chapter 2)
Which of the following is a common policy exclusion that would allow an insurer to deny a life insurance claim?
- A) Death resulting from a commercial airline crash as a fare-paying passenger.
- B) Death resulting from a heart attack while at work.
- C) Death resulting from a car accident where the insured was at fault.
- D) Death resulting from an act of war while the insured is a member of the military.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The 'War Exclusion' allows insurers to exclude death benefits if the insured dies as a result of war. Commercial aviation (fare-paying passengers) and accidental deaths (even if at fault) are generally covered. Heart attacks are natural causes and are covered.
Question 8 (Chapter 3)
An insurance contract is often referred to as a 'contract of adhesion.' What does this mean for a Tennessee policyholder if a policy provision is found to be ambiguous in court?
- A) The contract is voided and premiums are returned.
- B) The court will interpret the ambiguity in favor of the insurer because they wrote the contract.
- C) The producer is required to arbitrate the meaning of the clause.
- D) The court will interpret the ambiguity in favor of the insured because they had no say in the contract's wording.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Because insurance contracts are 'adhesion' contracts (offered on a 'take it or leave it' basis without negotiation), courts rule that any ambiguity must be interpreted in favor of the party that did not draft the document—the insured.
Question 9 (Chapter 3)
A 45-year-old individual in Knoxville pays $2,000 in annual premiums for a $500,000 life insurance policy. After only one month, the individual dies unexpectedly. The insurer pays the full $500,000. This disparity in value illustrates which contract characteristic?
- A) Unilateral
- B) Aleatory
- C) Conditional
- D) Personal
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
An aleatory contract is one where the exchange of value is unequal. The premium paid by the insured is small compared to the potential benefit paid by the insurer, depending on the occurrence of an uncertain event (death).
Question 10 (Chapter 3)
A life insurance policy that fails the '7-pay test' is classified by the IRS as a Modified Endowment Contract (MEC). What is the primary tax consequence of a policy becoming a MEC?
- A) The death benefit becomes fully taxable as ordinary income.
- B) The insurer must refund all premiums to the policyholder immediately.
- C) The policy is automatically converted to a term insurance policy.
- D) Policy loans and withdrawals are taxed on a Last-In, First-Out (LIFO) basis and may be subject to a 10% penalty.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Once a policy is classified as a MEC, it loses the favorable 'tax-free' withdrawal status of life insurance. Withdrawals are taxed as income first (LIFO), and if the owner is under age 59 1/2, a 10% federal tax penalty applies.
Question 11 (Chapter 3)
To be considered 'fully insured' for Social Security retirement benefits, a worker must generally have earned how many quarters of coverage?
- A) 6 quarters
- B) 20 quarters
- C) 10 quarters
- D) 40 quarters
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
To achieve 'fully insured' status under Social Security, which qualifies a worker for retirement and most survivor benefits, an individual typically needs 40 credits (quarters of coverage), representing 10 years of work.
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Practice Questions 12-21: Accident and Health Agent Exam Sample
The Accident and Health Agent exam opens with policy types, covers the provisions and social insurance programs built into an individual policy, then closes on other A&H concepts and Tennessee's own A&H statutes. These ten questions move through managed-care referral rules, Medigap standardization, deductible-and-coinsurance math, the free-look and guaranteed-renewable provisions, TennCare, Social Security Disability Income, coordination of benefits, a prohibited Medigap provision, and a Tennessee mandated-coverage statute.
Question 12 (Chapter 4)
Mark belongs to a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO). He has been experiencing back pain and wants to see a specialist. According to standard HMO procedures, what must Mark do first?
- A) Contact any specialist in the state and submit a claim later
- B) Pay the full cost of the specialist and seek reimbursement from the HMO
- C) Wait until the open enrollment period to change his plan to a PPO
- D) Obtain a referral from his Primary Care Physician (PCP)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
HMOs typically use a 'gatekeeper' system. To see a specialist, the member must first consult their Primary Care Physician (PCP), who then provides a referral if the specialist care is deemed medically necessary.
Question 13 (Chapter 4)
Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policies are required to be 'standardized' under federal law. What does this mean for a consumer?
- A) A Plan F offered by Company A must provide the same core benefits as a Plan F offered by Company B
- B) Every insurance company must charge the exact same premium for Plan G
- C) The policies cover all costs not paid by Medicaid
- D) The federal government provides the insurance directly to the consumer
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Standardization means that the benefit packages for each lettered plan (B through N) are identical across all insurers. While benefits are the same, premiums can vary significantly between companies.
Question 14 (Chapter 4)
Linda has a Major Medical policy with a $1,000 deductible, 80/20 coinsurance, and a $5,000 stop-loss limit. She incurs $11,000 in covered medical expenses. How much will Linda be responsible for paying in total?
- A) $1,000
- B) $2,000
- C) $5,000
- D) $3,000
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Linda first pays the $1,000 deductible. Of the remaining $10,000, she pays 20% coinsurance ($2,000). Her total out-of-pocket is $1,000 + $2,000 = $3,000. Since this is below her $5,000 stop-loss limit, she pays the full $3,000.
Question 15 (Chapter 5)
A consumer receives a new individual health insurance policy in the mail. They read the terms and decide they no longer want the coverage. Under the 'Right to Examine' (Free Look) provision, how many days do they typically have to return the policy for a full refund of all premiums paid?
- A) 7 days
- B) 10 days
- C) 30 days
- D) 45 days
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The standard 'Free Look' period for most individual health insurance policies is 10 days from the date of delivery. For Medicare Supplement or Long-Term Care policies, this period is usually extended to 30 days.
Question 16 (Chapter 5)
An insured has a 'Guaranteed Renewable' health insurance policy. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the insurer's rights?
- A) The insurer must renew the policy but can increase premiums for an entire class of insureds.
- B) The insurer can cancel the policy at any time for any reason.
- C) The insurer can increase premiums for an individual insured based on their claims history.
- D) The insurer cannot increase premiums under any circumstances.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
In a Guaranteed Renewable policy, the insurer is required to renew the policy as long as premiums are paid. However, the insurer retains the right to increase premiums by 'class' (e.g., all policyholders in Tennessee with the same plan), but not on an individual basis.
Question 17 (Chapter 5)
Which statement regarding Medicaid (administered as TennCare in Tennessee) is CORRECT?
- A) It is a needs-based program funded by both federal and state governments.
- B) It is a federal program with no state involvement.
- C) It is available to anyone over age 65 regardless of income.
- D) It only covers prescription drugs for the elderly.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides health coverage to individuals with low income and limited resources. In Tennessee, the Medicaid program is primarily operated through TennCare.
Question 18 (Chapter 5)
A worker in Murfreesboro becomes totally and permanently disabled and applies for Social Security Disability Income (SSDI) benefits. After meeting the strict definition of disability, what is the standard waiting period before benefits actually begin?
- A) 5 months
- B) 30 days
- C) 90 days
- D) 12 months
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Social Security Disability Income (SSDI) has a mandatory five-month waiting period. Benefits begin in the sixth full month of disability.
Question 19 (Chapter 6)
Tom has both a group health plan through his employer and an individual policy he purchased on the ACA marketplace. Both plans cover the same hospitalization expense of $10,000. Under coordination of benefits (COB) rules, which statement best describes the payment outcome?
- A) Each plan pays $5,000, resulting in a total payment of $10,000.
- B) The primary plan pays the full $10,000; the secondary plan pays nothing.
- C) Both plans pay the full $10,000, and the insured must return the excess $10,000.
- D) The secondary plan pays the remaining balance after the primary plan’s payment, up to the total expense.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
COB requires the primary insurer to pay first; the secondary insurer pays any remaining eligible amount, but total payments cannot exceed the actual expense. A split payment (A) is not required; the primary plan usually pays the full amount (B) only if the secondary plan has no obligation. C would create overpayment, which COB rules prevent.
Question 20 (Chapter 6)
Which of the following is a prohibited provision in a standardized Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy?
- A) A clause limiting benefits to services rendered in Tennessee only.
- B) A provision that requires the insured to obtain prior authorization for all services.
- C) A requirement that the insured must maintain continuous coverage for at least two years before filing a claim.
- D) A statement that the policy will not pay for any services received from a provider who does not accept Medicare assignment.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Medigap policies are generally prohibited from limiting or denying payment based on whether the treating provider accepts Medicare assignment. Geographic limits on where services are rendered (A) are permitted to some degree, prior authorization requirements (B) are permissible for certain services, and a continuous-coverage requirement before filing a claim (C) is not a recognized prohibition.
Question 21 (Chapter 6)
Which of the following is a mandated coverage that must be offered in Tennessee individual and group accident and health policies under Tenn. Code Ann. §§56-7-1002 and 56-7-1003?
- A) Coverage for inpatient mental health services equal to medical/surgical benefits.
- B) Coverage for annual vision exams for adults.
- C) Coverage for dental cleanings for children under age 12.
- D) Coverage for elective cosmetic surgery procedures.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Tenn. Code Ann. §§56-7-1002 and 56-7-1003 mandate the offering of mental health and substance use disorder benefits in individual and group accident and health policies, requiring parity with medical/surgical benefits (i.e., equal coverage). This reflects the federal Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act (MHPAEA) incorporated into Tennessee law. Options B, C, and D are not mandated coverages under these statutes; vision and dental are typically separate, and elective cosmetic surgery is not required.
Practice Questions 22-25: Tennessee Law
Fourteen of the 68 scored items on each exam come from a single Tennessee law section common to both the Life Agent and the Accident and Health Agent exam, and each exam adds four more items of its own line-specific Tennessee law. These four questions draw from both: three from the section tested on both exams — rebating, a producer's fiduciary duty, and the purpose of the Tennessee Life and Health Guaranty Association — and one from the law pertinent to life insurance only, covering the discount rule inside Tennessee's military sales practices regulation.
Question 22 (Chapter 7)
During a sales meeting, a producer offers a client a $50 cash rebate for signing a new policy, stating it is a special promotion. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this practice?
- A) Rebating is permissible if the client receives a tangible benefit
- B) Rebating is allowed if the producer discloses the rebate to the Commissioner
- C) Rebating is only prohibited for property and casualty lines
- D) Rebating is prohibited under Tenn. Code Ann. §56-6-125 and related unfair practice statutes
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
§56-6-125 and §§56-8-104‑105 expressly prohibit rebating, defined as giving any consideration to induce the purchase of insurance. Disclosure or client benefit does not make it permissible, and the prohibition applies to all lines, not just P&C.
Question 23 (Chapter 7)
Which statement accurately reflects the fiduciary duty of a Tennessee insurance producer?
- A) The producer must place the client’s interests above the producer’s personal gain.
- B) The producer must act in the best interest of the insurer only.
- C) The producer must disclose all material facts to the insured.
- D) The producer must guarantee the performance of the policy.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Section 56-6-116 defines a producer as a fiduciary who must act with honesty, integrity, and in the best interest of the client, placing the client's interests above personal gain. Therefore option A is correct. Option B is wrong because the fiduciary duty runs to the client, not solely to the insurer. Option C, while good practice, does not capture the core fiduciary definition. Option D is incorrect because no producer can guarantee a policy's performance.
Question 24 (Chapter 7)
The Tennessee Life and Health Guaranty Association primarily exists to:
- A) Provide protection to policyholders when a licensed insurer becomes insolvent
- B) Regulate premium rates for life and health insurers
- C) Issue producer licenses for life and health lines
- D) Conduct investigations of unfair claims practices
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Sections 56-12-201 through 56-12-220 establish the Life and Health Guaranty Association to protect policyholders and claimants of insolvent life and health insurers. Therefore A is correct. B, C, and D describe functions of other agencies or statutes, not the guaranty association.
Question 25 (Chapter 8)
A service‑member is offered a 5% discount on the premium of a term life policy because of his military status. Which Tennessee rule governs the permissibility of this discount?
- A) Dept. Rule 0780‑1‑40‑.04
- B) Dept. Rule 0780‑1‑24‑.02
- C) §56-7-2305
- D) Dept. Rule 0780‑1‑89
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Dept. Rule 0780‑1‑89 specifically regulates military sales practices, including permissible discounts and required disclosures to service members. The other options address disclosure, replacement, or grace period provisions.
The Mistakes That Cost Marks
Mixing up a deferred annuity's accumulation phase with an immediate annuity's payout. A deferred annuity accumulates funds for years before income payments start; an immediate annuity begins paying out right away. The exam trades on which phase a scenario describes, not just which product name is used.
Treating a waiver of premium rider as only covering future premiums. The standard version refunds the premiums paid during the waiting period itself, in addition to waiving every premium that falls due while the disability continues — missing the refund half of that answer costs a mark on an otherwise familiar rider.
Blurring the incontestability clause, the entire-contract provision and the war exclusion. Each does a different job: incontestability puts a two-year clock on ordinary misstatements, the entire-contract provision keeps an agent's spoken promises out of the contract, and the war exclusion is a cause-of-death exclusion unrelated to either. Tennessee tests all three as separate required provisions, not interchangeable protections.
Calling a contract 'aleatory' when the question is really about it being 'adhesion.' Adhesion describes how the contract was written — offered on a take-it-or-leave-it basis, so courts read ambiguity in the insured's favor. Aleatory describes the unequal exchange of value between premium and benefit. They are both true of the same policy but answer different questions.
Stopping the math at the deductible, and confusing free look with guaranteed renewable. Deductible and coinsurance are two separate steps, applied in order. Separately, a free-look provision protects a brand-new buyer's right to cancel for a refund; a guaranteed-renewable provision protects an existing policyholder's right to keep the policy in force. Neither one substitutes for the other.
Getting coordination of benefits backwards. The secondary plan pays what the primary plan leaves unpaid, up to the actual expense — it does not pay in full alongside the primary plan, and the two plans together cannot exceed the bill. Rebating is a separate, broader rule: Tennessee's prohibition covers any inducement to buy, regardless of whether the client benefits from it.
Your Next Step
How did you score?
20 or more correct (80%+): You are comfortably above the scaled-70 target on both exams. Book whichever exam you are closer to finishing your prep for, then work the two topic sets that go deeper on each one: the Life Agent exam and the Accident and Health Agent exam.
17-19 correct: You are in range but without much margin, especially since 25 questions here stand in for two 77-item exams. Note the chapter of every question you missed and work that chapter's audio lesson again before moving to the topic sets above.
Under 17 correct: You need the material, not more questions. Start with the study plan in how to pass the Tennessee Life & Health exam on the first try and work through the audio chapters before testing yourself again. First-time pass rates in 2025 ran 71% on the Life Agent exam and 64% on the Accident and Health Agent exam — solid odds, but no reason to expect an unprepared second attempt to go better.
Chapters 1 and 9 of the LanePrep Tennessee course are free at /tn/l-and-h/preview — full audio and the chapter quiz, no signup. For the full cost picture, see how much a Tennessee L&H license costs.
Exam structure and fees from the Pearson VUE Tennessee Insurance Licensing Candidate Handbook #124300 (10/2026). Question counts and content weighting from Pearson VUE content outline #124301 (effective October 7, 2026). Pass rates from the NAIC 2025 compiled pass-rate report. Read October 2026.
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