17 Free Washington Life & Health Practice Questions: Federal Laws and General Insurance Concepts (2026)

15 min read|Updated 2026-10-23

How to Use This Federal Laws and General Insurance Concepts Set

These are the foundation sections of the exam. Federal Laws and Regulations has 2 items on the combined outline and General Insurance Concepts has 10. They are small next to the Washington law section, but the ideas here, such as insurable risk, indemnity, the kinds of insurer and the law of agency, are used in every later question.

The questions below test the language of insurance as much as the rules. When two options sound alike, ask what each word is doing: who owns the insurer, who has authority, who bears the loss. A federal felony-consent rule and the Fair Credit Reporting Act also appear and reward careful reading.

Federal Laws and Regulations has 2 items and General Insurance Concepts has 10 items on the PSI combined Life and Disability outline.

Practice Questions 1-6: Felony Consent, Insurable Risk and Contract Basics

The federal rule on people convicted of dishonest felonies, what makes a risk insurable, indemnity, alien insurers and the elements of a valid contract.

Question 1 (Chapter 3)

A Washington resident with a felony conviction for embezzlement (a crime involving dishonesty) wants to become a licensed insurance producer. According to 18 U.S.C. §§ 1033 and 1034, what is required before this person can engage in the business of insurance in Washington?

  • A) The individual must wait 10 years after the conviction before applying for a license.
  • B) The individual must receive written consent from the Washington Office of the Insurance Commissioner.
  • C) The individual must disclose the conviction on the license application but does not need additional consent.
  • D) The individual is permanently barred from obtaining an insurance license in any state.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

18 U.S.C. §§ 1033 and 1034 prohibit individuals convicted of a felony involving dishonesty or breach of trust from engaging in the business of insurance without written consent from the state insurance commissioner. In Washington, this consent must come from the Office of the Insurance Commissioner. Option B correctly states this requirement. Option A is incorrect; there is no statutory 10-year waiting period. Option C is incorrect because mere disclosure is insufficient—express written consent is required. Option D is incorrect; the statute allows for commissioner consent, so a permanent bar is not automatic.

Question 2 (Chapter 3)

Which of the following best describes an 'insurable risk' from an insurer's perspective?

  • A) A risk that is certain to occur, such as the aging of a building.
  • B) A risk that only affects a small number of people, making it easy to pool.
  • C) A risk that involves intentional acts, such as fraud or arson.
  • D) A risk that is due to chance, definite and measurable, statistically predictable, not catastrophic, and for which the premium is economically feasible.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

For a risk to be insurable, it must meet several criteria: the loss must be due to chance (not intentional), definite and measurable (able to quantify), statistically predictable (allowing premium calculation), not catastrophic (so losses are spread), and the premium must be economically feasible for the insured. Option D correctly lists all these elements. Option A describes a certain event, which is not fortuitous and thus not insurable. Option B is incorrect; while risks should be spread across a large pool, affecting few people makes pooling ineffective. Option C describes risks from intentional acts, which are typically excluded as they violate the chance requirement and may involve moral hazard.

Question 3 (Chapter 3)

A property insurance policy states that the insurer will pay the actual cash value of damaged property, which is the replacement cost minus depreciation. This principle is known as:

  • A) Valued policy
  • B) Replacement cost
  • C) Subrogation
  • D) Indemnity
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

The principle of indemnity seeks to restore the insured to the same financial position they were in before the loss, no better and no worse. Paying actual cash value (replacement cost minus depreciation) is a method of applying indemnity, as it accounts for wear and tear. Option D is correct. Option A (valued policy) pays a pre-agreed amount regardless of actual loss. Option B (replacement cost) pays to replace without deducting depreciation, which exceeds indemnity if not adjusted. Option C (subrogation) is the insurer's right to recover from a third party after paying a claim, not the measure of loss.

Question 4 (Chapter 3)

Which of the following best describes an 'alien insurer' operating in Washington?

  • A) An insurer incorporated under the laws of a foreign country.
  • B) An insurer incorporated in Washington but operating in other states.
  • C) An insurer incorporated in another U.S. state, such as Oregon, doing business in Washington.
  • D) An insurer owned by its policyholders.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

An alien insurer is one incorporated under the laws of a foreign country (outside the United States). For example, a company based in Germany or Japan selling insurance in Washington is an alien insurer. Option A is correct. Option B describes a domestic insurer (if incorporated in Washington) operating elsewhere, which is not specific to alien status. Option C describes a foreign insurer (incorporated in another U.S. state). Option D describes a mutual insurer, which relates to ownership, not domicile.

Question 5 (Chapter 3)

A Washington resident applies for a life insurance policy. The producer discovers the applicant has a felony conviction for money laundering, which involves dishonesty or breach of trust. Before this person can be licensed as a producer in Washington, what does 18 U.S.C. §§ 1033 and 1034 require?

  • A) The applicant must disclose the conviction on the insurance application but can be licensed without further action.
  • B) The applicant is permanently barred from obtaining an insurance producer license in any state due to the federal nature of the statute.
  • C) The Washington State Office of the Insurance Commissioner must provide written consent to the applicant's employer, not the applicant directly.
  • D) The applicant must obtain written consent from the Washington State Office of the Insurance Commissioner before engaging in the business of insurance.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because 18 U.S.C. §§ 1033-1034 prohibits individuals convicted of felonies involving dishonesty or breach of trust from engaging in the insurance business without written consent from the state insurance commissioner. A is incorrect because mere disclosure is insufficient; affirmative consent is required. B is incorrect because the statute allows for licensing with consent, not a permanent bar. C is incorrect because consent must be obtained by the individual seeking to engage in insurance, not granted to an employer.

Question 6 (Chapter 3)

Which of the following is an essential element of a valid insurance contract?

  • A) The policy must be signed by a licensed attorney to be enforceable.
  • B) The insured must have previously filed a claim with the insurer to establish a history.
  • C) The contract must be for a minimum term of five years to be valid.
  • D) There must be consideration, which in insurance is the premium paid by the insured and the promise of coverage by the insurer.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because consideration—something of value exchanged—is required for any valid contract; in insurance, the premium is the insured's consideration and the insurer's promise to pay is theirs. A is incorrect as attorney signature is not required. B is incorrect as prior claims history is irrelevant to contract validity. C is incorrect as there is no minimum term requirement; policies can be short-term or continuous.

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Practice Questions 7-12: Insurer Types, Authority, Fraud and Premium Handling

Stock against mutual ownership, express, implied and apparent authority, the elements of fraud, consumer reports and who bears the loss when a producer misuses a premium.

Question 7 (Chapter 3)

A Washington insurance producer is explaining the difference between a stock insurer and a mutual insurer to a client. Which statement is accurate?

  • A) In a mutual insurer, policyholders are the owners and may receive surplus distributions as dividends, while in a stock insurer, shareholders own the company and expect returns on their investment.
  • B) A stock insurer is owned by its policyholders, who elect the board of directors and receive dividends from profits.
  • C) A mutual insurer issues shares of stock to investors, who expect returns through dividends and capital appreciation.
  • D) Both stock and mutual insurers are required to have at least 51% ownership by state governments to operate in Washington.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct because mutual insurers are owned by policyholders who may receive dividends, while stock insurers are owned by shareholders who invest for financial return. B incorrectly describes mutual insurers as stock. C incorrectly describes stock insurers as mutual. D is incorrect as there is no state ownership requirement for private insurers in Washington.

Question 8 (Chapter 3)

Under Washington law and general agency principles, an insurance producer receives verbal permission from a client to change the beneficiary on their life insurance policy. The producer does not obtain written confirmation. Later, the client denies authorizing the change. In a dispute over the producer's authority, which concept is most relevant?

  • A) The producer had express authority because verbal permission is sufficient under Washington law for beneficiary changes.
  • B) The producer had implied authority to change beneficiaries as it is a routine service function.
  • C) The producer had no authority whatsoever, as all insurance transactions require written documentation to be valid.
  • D) The producer may have had apparent authority if the client's conduct led the producer to reasonably believe permission was granted, but the lack of documentation creates a dispute over actual authority.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because while verbal permission may suggest apparent authority, the lack of written follow-up creates a dispute over whether actual (express or implied) authority existed; apparent authority depends on the principal's manifestations to third parties, but here the issue is whether the producer had actual authority from the client. A is incorrect as verbal permission alone does not constitute express authority for such acts without clear mutual understanding. B is incorrect because beneficiary changes, while common, are not so routine as to imply authority without confirmation. C is incorrect as many insurance transactions can be valid based on verbal agreement, though documentation is strongly advised.

Question 9 (Chapter 3)

From an insurer's perspective, which of the following is NOT an element of an insurable risk?

  • A) The loss must be due to chance.
  • B) The loss must be definite and measurable.
  • C) The premium must be economically feasible for the insured.
  • D) The loss must be catastrophic in nature.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is the answer because it is the one statement that is not an element of an insurable risk: insurers avoid catastrophic exposures that would hit many insureds at once and threaten solvency. The other three are genuine requirements: the loss must be accidental (A), definite and measurable (B), and the premium must be affordable enough that people will buy the coverage (C).

Question 10 (Chapter 3)

A client alleges that an insurance producer committed fraud by misrepresenting the guaranteed interest rate on a fixed annuity. To prove fraud, what must the client establish beyond a false representation of material fact?

  • A) That the producer made the statement casually and without thinking.
  • B) That the statement was actually true but the client misunderstood it.
  • C) That the producer intended to deceive the client and relied upon the false statement.
  • D) That the client suffered no financial loss as a result of the statement.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

Fraud requires: (1) a false representation of material fact, (2) knowledge of its falsity or reckless disregard for the truth, (3) intent to deceive, (4) justifiable reliance by the victim, and (5) resulting damage. Beyond the false representation, the client must prove the producer intended to deceive and that the client relied on the false statement. Option A describes negligence, not fraud. Option B would negate the falsity element. Option D is incorrect because resulting damage (or loss) is required for fraud.

Question 11 (Chapter 3)

Which of the following statements about the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) is correct regarding an insurance producer's permissible use of consumer reports in Washington?

  • A) A producer must have a permissible purpose, such as underwriting insurance, to obtain a consumer report, and must certify the purpose to the consumer reporting agency.
  • B) A producer may use a consumer report for any insurance-related purpose as long as the applicant has signed a general authorization form.
  • C) The FCRA allows producers to share consumer reports with third-party marketers if the consumer has not opted out of such sharing.
  • D) Adverse action notices under the FCRA are only required if the consumer report contains information about bankruptcies or judgments.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Under the FCRA, a user of consumer reports (including insurance producers) must have a permissible purpose to obtain a report, such as for underwriting insurance, and must certify that purpose to the consumer reporting agency. Option B is incorrect because a general authorization does not override the need for a permissible purpose under FCRA. Option C is false; FCRA restricts redisclosure of consumer reports and does not permit sharing with marketers based on an opt-out model. Option D is incorrect because adverse action notices are required whenever denial or adverse action is based in whole or in part on information in a consumer report, regardless of the specific type of information.

Question 12 (Chapter 3)

An insurance producer in Washington is appointed by an insurer to sell life insurance. The producer collects a premium from a client and, before forwarding it to the insurer, uses the money to pay a personal debt. The premium is lost when the producer's business fails. Who bears the loss for the unremitted premium?

  • A) The client, because they entrusted the premium to the producer and must seek reimbursement from the producer directly.
  • B) The producer, because they misappropriated funds entrusted to them in a fiduciary capacity.
  • C) The insurer, because the producer was acting within the scope of their appointment when they collected the premium.
  • D) The Washington Insurance Commissioner's guaranty fund, because it covers losses due to producer insolvency.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

When an insurance producer collects premiums from clients, they hold those funds in a fiduciary capacity for the insurer (or sometimes the client, depending on the stage of transmission). Misappropriating premiums for personal use constitutes a breach of fiduciary duty and, in many cases, embezzlement. The producer is personally liable for the loss, and the insurer may pursue legal action to recover the funds. The client has typically fulfilled their obligation by paying the producer and is not liable for the producer's theft. Washington does not have a guaranty fund that covers losses due to producer misconduct; guaranty funds protect policyholders against insurer insolvency, not producer fraud. Therefore, the producer bears the loss.

Practice Questions 13-17: Risk Retention, Fraternals, Consumer Reports and Metal Levels

Captives and risk techniques, the fraternal insurer, the FCRA again from another angle, ACA metal tiers and apparent authority in a beneficiary dispute.

Question 13 (Chapter 3)

A small business owner in Washington uses a captive insurer to provide employee health benefits. The captive is owned and controlled by the parent company and insures only the risks of its parent and affiliated companies. This arrangement is an example of which risk management technique?

  • A) Risk avoidance
  • B) Risk sharing
  • C) Risk retention
  • D) Risk reduction
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

C is correct. A single-parent captive insures only the risks of its parent and affiliates, so the group keeps its own losses rather than transferring them to an outside insurer: that is risk retention in a formal, funded form. A would mean not offering the benefit at all, B describes transferring part of the risk to others outside the group, and D describes loss-control measures that lower frequency or severity.

Question 14 (Chapter 3)

A Washington insurance producer is explaining Affordable Care Act (ACA) metallic plans to a client. Which statement accurately describes the relationship between the metal level and the plan's actuarial value?

  • A) Bronze plans have the highest actuarial value, covering approximately 90% of average costs.
  • B) Platinum plans have lower premiums than Gold plans because they cover a smaller percentage of costs.
  • C) The metallic level indicates the plan's network size, with Platinum having the broadest network.
  • D) Silver plans cover about 70% of total average costs for benefits, which is higher than Bronze but lower than Gold.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

ACA metallic plans are categorized by actuarial value: Bronze (~60%), Silver (~70%), Gold (~80%), Platinum (~90%). Silver covers about 70% of average costs, which is more than Bronze (60%) but less than Gold (80%). Option D correctly describes this. Option A reverses the values (Bronze is lowest, not highest). Option B is incorrect because Platinum has the highest actuarial value and thus the highest premiums, not lower. Option C confuses metallic levels with network types (HMO/PPO); metallic levels relate to cost-sharing, not network structure.

Question 15 (Chapter 3)

A homeowner decides not to build a house in a floodplain to avoid the risk of flood damage. Which method of handling risk does this action represent?

  • A) Risk transfer
  • B) Risk retention
  • C) Risk reduction
  • D) Risk avoidance
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Risk avoidance involves eliminating the risk by not engaging in the activity that creates it. By choosing not to build in a floodplain, the homeowner avoids the risk of flood damage entirely. Option D is correct. Option A (transfer) would involve shifting the risk to another party, such as buying flood insurance. Option B (retention) means accepting the risk and paying for losses oneself. Option C (reduction) involves taking steps to lower the likelihood or severity of loss, such as elevating the house, but not avoiding the location altogether.

Question 16 (Chapter 3)

A client in Washington is comparing ACA Silver and Gold plans. They want to understand how the actuarial value differs between these two metallic levels. Which statement is correct?

  • A) The Gold plan has lower monthly premiums than the Silver plan because it covers a higher percentage of costs.
  • B) The Silver plan is only available to individuals eligible for cost-sharing reductions, while the Gold plan is not.
  • C) The Silver plan covers approximately 70% of total average costs for benefits, while the Gold plan covers approximately 80%.
  • D) Both plans cover the same percentage of costs, but the Gold plan has a narrower provider network.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C

The ACA metallic plans are defined by their actuarial value, which is the percentage of total average costs for benefits that the plan covers. Silver plans have an actuarial value of approximately 70%, and Gold plans have an actuarial value of approximately 80%. Therefore, the Silver plan covers about 70% of costs, and the Gold plan covers about 80%. Option A is incorrect because higher actuarial value (Gold) typically results in higher premiums, not lower. Option B is incorrect because Silver plans are available to all individuals in the individual market, not just those eligible for cost-sharing reductions (though CSRs enhance Silver plans). Option D is incorrect because the metallic levels do not determine network structure; plans of any metal level can have various network types (HMO, PPO, etc.).

Question 17 (Chapter 3)

A Washington insurance producer, acting within their appointed authority, delivers a life insurance policy to a client and explains that the client can change the beneficiary by simply calling the producer and making the request verbally. The client later calls and verbally requests a beneficiary change. The producer does not obtain written confirmation and processes the change based solely on the verbal instruction. If a dispute arises over the validity of the beneficiary change, which concept is most relevant to determining whether the producer had the authority to act on the verbal instruction?

  • A) Express authority
  • B) Apparent authority
  • C) Implied authority
  • D) Ratification
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Apparent authority arises when a principal (the insurer) leads a third party (the client) to reasonably believe that an agent (the producer) has authority to act, based on the agent's manifestations or the principal's conduct. In this scenario, the producer told the client that verbal requests were sufficient to change the beneficiary, which may have led the client to reasonably believe the producer had the authority to accept and act on such requests. If the insurer did not actually grant this authority (e.g., if the policy requires written changes), the producer may have acted beyond their actual authority, but the client may have reasonably relied on the producer's representation. Thus, apparent authority is the key concept in determining whether the producer's actions could bind the insurer. Express authority is explicitly granted; implied authority is what is necessary to carry out express authority; ratification occurs when the principal accepts the agent's unauthorized act after the fact.

The Mistakes That Cost Marks

Calling a catastrophic risk insurable. The NOT question on insurable risk is built on the idea that insurers avoid exposures that hit many insureds at once.

Mixing up insurer labels. Alien, foreign and domestic describe where an insurer is incorporated, while stock, mutual and fraternal describe ownership and purpose.

Confusing the kinds of authority. Express is stated, implied is what the job reasonably needs, and apparent is what the other party is led to believe. Two questions in this set turn on exactly that.

Forgetting who holds funds in trust. A producer who spends a premium bears the loss, because the money was held in a fiduciary capacity.

Missing the permissible purpose. Consumer reports need a permissible purpose, and an adverse action notice follows an adverse decision based on the report.

Your Next Step

You have worked through 17 questions on this part of the exam. Check the ones you missed against the explanations, then try the same topic again after a day. When you are ready for the full picture, start with the LanePrep course preview for audio lessons and quizzes, or return to the free Washington Life & Health practice question hub to choose your next topic.

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