17 Free Missouri Life & Health Practice Questions: Accident and Health Policy Types (2026)
How to Use This Set
This set covers accident and health policy types. On the Accident and Health single-line outline, Types of Policies carries 16 items, and the combined exam lists the same 16.
The section spans disability income, accidental death and dismemberment, medical expense plans, dental and vision, hospital indemnity, long-term care and Medigap. Many questions pair a policy type with a scenario and ask what it pays. Several need arithmetic, so keep a pencil handy.
These 17 questions have answers and explanations behind each one. Try each question before you open the explanation.
Practice Questions 1-6: AD&D, Long-Term Care, Managed Care and Coordination
Covered here: principal and capital sums, activities of daily living, point of service plans, what AD&D does not cover, dental categories and the birthday rule. Work each question before you open the explanation.
Question 1 (Chapter 4)
An insured has an Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD&D) policy with a principal sum of $50,000. While working on a project in Kansas City, the insured suffers an accidental injury resulting in the loss of one foot. What is the most likely benefit amount the insured will receive?
- A) $50,000 (The Principal Sum)
- B) $0, because the insured did not die
- C) $50,000 plus medical expenses
- D) $25,000 (The Capital Sum)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
In AD&D policies, the principal sum is paid for accidental death or the loss of two primary parts (eyes, limbs). The capital sum, usually 50% of the principal sum, is paid for the loss of a single primary part, such as one foot.
Question 2 (Chapter 4)
A Long-Term Care (LTC) policy in Missouri triggers benefits when the insured is unable to perform a certain number of Activities of Daily Living (ADLs). Which of the following is NOT considered a standard ADL?
- A) Driving
- B) Bathing
- C) Eating
- D) Transferring
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The six standard ADLs are bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence, and eating. Driving is an 'Instrumental Activity of Daily Living' (IADL) but is not a standard trigger for LTC benefits.
Question 3 (Chapter 4)
Which medical expense plan allows an insured to choose, at the time service is needed, whether to use an HMO-style provider or a PPO-style provider?
- A) Point of Service (POS) Plan
- B) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
- C) Medical Savings Account (MSA)
- D) Basic Hospital Expense Plan
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A Point of Service (POS) plan is a hybrid that functions like an HMO if the member stays in-network and uses a gatekeeper, but allows the member to 'point' to out-of-network providers at the time of service for a higher cost.
Question 4 (Chapter 4)
An insured in St. Joseph has an Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD&D) policy. While running a marathon, the insured suffers a massive heart attack and dies instantly. How will the insurer likely respond to the claim for the principal sum?
- A) The claim will be paid in full because the death occurred during a physical activity.
- B) The insurer will pay 50% of the principal sum as a 'capital sum' benefit.
- C) The claim will be paid only if the insured had a 'double indemnity' rider.
- D) The claim will be denied because the death was caused by a physical illness, not an accident.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
AD&D policies strictly cover death or dismemberment resulting from external, violent, and accidental means. Death resulting from internal medical conditions, such as a heart attack or stroke, is considered a natural/illness-related death and is not covered by AD&D.
Question 5 (Chapter 4)
An insured's dental plan classifies procedures into different categories. The insured receives a root canal and a porcelain crown. These procedures are typically classified as:
- A) Major Services
- B) Diagnostic and Preventive Services
- C) Basic Services
- D) Excluded Services
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
In dental insurance, 'Major Services' typically include complex procedures such as crowns, bridges, dentures, and sometimes endodontics (root canals), though some plans move root canals to 'Basic'. However, crowns are almost universally 'Major'.
Question 6 (Chapter 4)
A child is covered under both parents' group health plans. The father's birthday is March 12, and the mother's birthday is August 25. Under the standard Coordination of Benefits 'Birthday Rule,' which plan is primary?
- A) The mother's plan, because her birthday occurs later in the calendar year.
- B) The plan of the parent who has been employed the longest.
- C) The plan with the lower deductible.
- D) The father's plan, because his birthday occurs earlier in the calendar year.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The Birthday Rule states that the primary plan for a dependent child is the plan of the parent whose birthday (month and day) falls earlier in the calendar year.
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Practice Questions 7-12: Disability Income, Riders and Hospital Indemnity
Covered here: own-occupation definitions, the cost of living adjustment rider, non-occupational policies, capital sum arithmetic, hospital indemnity and the elimination period. Work each question before you open the explanation.
Question 7 (Chapter 4)
A specialized neurosurgeon in St. Louis purchases a Disability Income policy with an 'Own Occupation' definition of total disability. After a tremor develops in his hand, he can no longer perform surgery but takes a position as a medical school professor. How will the policy respond?
- A) It will pay full benefits because he cannot perform the duties of the specific occupation for which he is trained.
- B) It will pay no benefits because he is still able to work in a gainful occupation for which he is suited by education.
- C) It will pay 50% of the benefit because he is only partially disabled under the 'Any Occupation' definition.
- D) It will pay benefits only until he receives his first paycheck from the university.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The 'Own Occupation' definition is the most liberal for the insured; it triggers benefits if the insured cannot perform the specific duties of their own profession, regardless of whether they can work in another field. The 'Any Occupation' definition (Option B) is stricter and would likely deny benefits if the insured could teach.
Question 8 (Chapter 4)
A producer is selling a Disability Income policy to a client in Jefferson City. The client is concerned about future inflation eroding the value of the monthly benefit. Which rider should the producer recommend?
- A) Guaranteed Insurability Rider
- B) Social Insurance Supplement (SIS) Rider
- C) Cost of Living Adjustment (COLA) Rider
- D) Waiver of Premium Rider
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The COLA rider automatically increases the monthly benefit during a period of disability based on an index like the Consumer Price Index (CPI) to help keep pace with inflation. The Guaranteed Insurability Rider (Option A) allows the purchase of more coverage later without a medical exam, but it doesn't automatically adjust benefits during an active claim.
Question 9 (Chapter 4)
A construction worker in Joplin has a 'Non-occupational' Disability Income policy. He is injured while working on a job site and is eligible for Workers' Compensation. How will his disability policy likely respond?
- A) It will pay full benefits in addition to Workers' Compensation.
- B) It will pay the difference between his salary and the Workers' Comp benefit.
- C) It will pay nothing because the injury occurred on the job.
- D) It will pay benefits only if he waives his right to Workers' Compensation.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A 'Non-occupational' policy specifically excludes disabilities that occur on the job, as those are intended to be covered by Workers' Compensation. 'Occupational' policies cover both on-the-job and off-the-job injuries.
Question 10 (Chapter 4)
Under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD&D) policy with a principal sum of $75,000, what is the capital sum payable for the loss of sight in one eye, assuming a standard schedule where loss of one eye is 50% of the principal sum?
- A) $25,000
- B) $37,500
- C) $50,000
- D) $75,000
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The capital sum for dismemberment is a percentage of the principal sum based on the severity of the injury. Loss of sight in one eye typically pays 50% of the principal sum. For a $75,000 principal sum, 50% is $37,500. Options A ($25,000) and C ($50,000) represent incorrect percentages (33.3% and 66.7%), while D ($75,000) would be the full principal sum payable only for accidental death or loss of both eyes or both limbs in some schedules.
Question 11 (Chapter 4)
A Missouri resident has a hospital indemnity insurance policy that pays $200 per day for hospitalization. If hospitalized for 5 days due to a covered accident, what is the total benefit payable, regardless of the actual hospital charges incurred?
- A) $200
- B) $500
- C) $1,000
- D) $1,200
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Hospital indemnity policies pay a fixed, pre-determined amount per day of hospitalization, regardless of the actual expenses incurred. The benefit is not based on the hospital bill. For a $200 per day benefit over 5 days, the total is $200 × 5 = $1,000. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation: A is one day's benefit, B is for 2.5 days, and D is for 6 days.
Question 12 (Chapter 4)
A producer is explaining the elimination period in a disability income policy to a client. Which statement best describes the elimination period?
- A) It is the maximum length of time benefits will be paid after a disability begins.
- B) It is the percentage of pre-disability income that the benefit will replace.
- C) It is the waiting period after the onset of a disability before benefit payments begin.
- D) It is the amount of the monthly premium that is waived while the insured is disabled.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The elimination period in a disability income policy functions as a time deductible. It is the period that must elapse after the onset of a covered disability before the insurer begins paying benefit payments. Common elimination periods are 30, 60, or 90 days. Option A describes the benefit period, not the elimination period. Option B describes the benefit level or replacement ratio. Option D is incorrect; while some policies may waive premiums during disability, this is not the definition of the elimination period.
Practice Questions 13-17: Cost Sharing, Pre-Determination, Long-Term Care and Medigap
Covered here: PPO cost-sharing arithmetic, dental pre-determination, bed reservation, Medigap open enrollment and what vision plans exclude. Work each question before you open the explanation.
Question 13 (Chapter 4)
An insured is covered by a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) with a $500 deductible and 80/20 in-network / 60/40 out-of-network coinsurance. The insured seeks treatment from an out-of-network specialist, resulting in a $2,500 bill. Assuming the deductible has not been met, how much is the insured's total out-of-pocket responsibility?
- A) $900
- B) $1,300
- C) $1,500
- D) $500
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
First, the $500 deductible is applied to the $2,500 bill, leaving $2,000. Since the provider is out-of-network, the 60/40 coinsurance applies. The insured pays 40% of the remaining $2,000 ($800). Total out-of-pocket = $500 (deductible) + $800 (coinsurance) = $1,300.
Question 14 (Chapter 4)
A Missouri dental patient requires a complex series of treatments including an extraction, an implant, and a crown. The dentist submits a 'Pre-determination of Benefits' to the insurer. What is the primary purpose of this action?
- A) To guarantee that the dentist will be paid immediately.
- B) To allow the insurer to notify the patient of what will be covered and what the out-of-pocket costs will be before treatment begins.
- C) To waive the patient's deductible for the year.
- D) To legally require the patient to complete the treatment.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Pre-determination of benefits (also called pre-authorization or pre-estimate) allows the patient and dentist to know the insurer's level of coverage and the patient's financial responsibility before expensive dental work is performed.
Question 15 (Chapter 4)
An insured is currently receiving benefits in a nursing home under a Long-Term Care policy. The insured must be transferred to a hospital for surgery for three days. Which policy provision ensures the nursing home does not give the insured's room to someone else?
- A) Restoration of Benefits
- B) Bed Reservation Benefit
- C) Waiver of Premium
- D) Nonforfeiture Benefit
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The Bed Reservation benefit pays the facility to keep the insured's bed available if the insured is temporarily hospitalized during a stay in a nursing home or assisted living facility.
Question 16 (Chapter 4)
A 65-year-old Missouri resident is enrolling in Medicare Part B and wants to buy a Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy. During her initial Medigap open enrollment period, she applies for a standardized Medigap plan available to new Medicare beneficiaries. Which statement is true regarding her application?
- A) The insurer can deny her application due to her age.
- B) The insurer must accept her application without medical underwriting.
- C) The insurer can impose a pre-existing condition waiting period of up to two years regardless of her enrollment timing.
- D) She must wait until her annual election period to apply.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
During the Medigap open enrollment period (which begins when a person is 65 or older and enrolled in Medicare Part B, and lasts six months), insurers must use guaranteed issue rights: they cannot deny coverage, impose medical underwriting, or impose pre-existing condition waiting periods based on health status. Option A is incorrect because age cannot be used to deny coverage during this period. Option C is incorrect because pre-existing condition waiting periods cannot be imposed during the open enrollment window. Option D is incorrect because the open enrollment period itself is the correct, guaranteed-issue time to apply.
Question 17 (Chapter 4)
A Missouri resident buys a Vision insurance policy. Which of the following services is typically NOT covered under a standard Vision plan?
- A) Annual eye exam
- B) Prescription eyeglass lenses
- C) Frames up to a specified allowance
- D) Laser eye surgery (LASIK) for vision correction
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Standard Vision insurance policies typically cover routine eye exams, prescription lenses, and frames up to a specified dollar amount. Laser eye surgery (LASIK) and other refractive surgeries are generally considered elective procedures and are excluded from standard Vision plan coverage; they may be available through a separate discount program or rider, but are not a standard covered benefit. Options A, B, and C are standard covered benefits under most Vision plans.
The Mistakes That Cost Marks
Treating AD&D as general life cover. It pays for accidental death and dismemberment, not for death from illness such as a heart attack (question 4).
Confusing principal and capital sums. The principal sum is the full benefit, and the capital sum is the smaller scheduled amount for a single loss (questions 1 and 10).
Reversing the order of cost sharing. Apply the deductible first, then the coinsurance to what is left (question 13).
Mixing own-occupation and any-occupation. Own-occupation is the more generous definition (question 7).
Mixing up occupational and non-occupational policies. A non-occupational policy does not respond to an on-the-job injury (question 9).
Assuming indemnity follows the bill. A hospital indemnity plan pays a fixed daily amount whatever the charges are (question 11).
Your Next Step
Score yourself on the three groups and note which ones went worst, then return to that part of the outline. The course preview lets you try the audio lessons and quiz format, and our free practice question hub has the full list of topic sets for the Missouri Life & Health exam.
For the format and difficulty, read how many questions are on the exam and whether the exam is hard.
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