18 Free Maryland Accident & Health Exam Practice Questions (2026)

18 min read|Updated 2026-10-18

How to Use This Accident and Health Question Set

Maryland's Accident and Health or Sickness Producer exam is one of two paths to a Health license — the other being the combined exam that also covers Life. Sat on its own, it delivers 80 scored questions plus 10 unscored pretest questions mixed in without being labeled, for 90 items in 105 minutes, at $62 per attempt from Prometric. Passing takes 70% or higher, stated as a plain percentage rather than a scaled score.

Prometric's content outline splits the 80 scored items across ten sections: Insurance Regulation (30%, 24 items), General Insurance (9%, 7 items), Health Insurance Basics (11%, 9 items), Individual Health Insurance Policy General Provisions (8%, 6 items), Disability Income and Related Insurance (9%, 7 items), Medical Plans (14%, 11 items), Group Health Insurance (5%, 4 items), Dental Insurance (1%, 1 item), Insurance for Senior Citizens and Special Needs Individuals (9%, 7 items), and Federal Tax Considerations for Health Insurance (5%, 4 items). Insurance Regulation and Medical Plans are the two largest line-specific sections.

These 18 questions come from chapters 5, 6 and 7 of LanePrep's Maryland Life, Accident & Health quiz bank, none of them repeated from the free 25-question sample across both exams: six on health insurance basics and individual policy provisions (chapter 5), six on disability income, medical plans, group health and dental (chapter 6), and six on senior and special-needs coverage and federal tax for health insurance (chapter 7). Each question shows its chapter, so a miss tells you exactly which audio lesson to replay.

Maryland does not currently require a pre-licensing course for Accident and Health or Sickness candidates, and this is the better-performing of Maryland's two single-line exams by the numbers: the NAIC's compiled pass-rate data puts the first-time pass rate at roughly 67-71%, against about 51% for the Life Producer exam. A solid majority still means close to a third of first-time candidates did not pass, so this is not a set to guess through.

Work them before you read the answer. Every question has the explanation folded underneath it. Guessing and then reading is worth more than reading and then agreeing.

Practice Questions 1-6: Health Insurance Basics and Individual Policy Provisions

Health Insurance Basics and Individual Health Insurance Policy General Provisions together make up almost a fifth of the exam. These six move through misrepresentation on a health application, a specified disease policy, unfair discrimination against a domestic violence survivor, the prohibition on using genetic information, the cancellation-by-insured provision, and the felony/illegal-occupation exclusion.

Question 1 (Chapter 5)

A Maryland applicant for an individual health insurance policy fails to disclose a recent diagnosis of hypertension on the application. The insurer issues the policy, and six months later, the applicant is hospitalized for a stroke. The insurer investigates and discovers the undisclosed hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely outcome regarding the stroke claim?

  • A) The claim will be paid in full because hypertension is not directly related to stroke.
  • B) The claim will be paid, but the insurer will increase the premium retroactively.
  • C) The claim will be paid only if the applicant can prove the hypertension was under control.
  • D) The claim will be denied due to misrepresentation, and the policy may be rescinded ab initio.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Failure to disclose a material fact such as a recent hypertension diagnosis constitutes misrepresentation in the application. If the insurer can show that the nondisclosure was material to the risk and would have affected underwriting, it may deny the claim and rescind the policy from its inception. Hypertension is a known risk factor for stroke, making it material. Insurers do not retroactively increase premiums for individual health policies based on undisclosed conditions, nor is payment contingent on the condition being under control.

Question 2 (Chapter 5)

Which of the following benefits is typically provided by a specified disease (dread disease) health insurance policy?

  • A) A fixed daily payment for each day of hospitalization due to any cause.
  • B) Replacement of lost income if the insured is unable to work due to a non-work-related injury or illness.
  • C) Coverage for routine vision exams and corrective lenses.
  • D) A lump-sum benefit upon diagnosis of a specified illness such as cancer, heart attack, or stroke.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Specified disease policies, also known as dread disease policies, provide benefits only upon diagnosis of a specific illness named in the policy, such as cancer, heart attack, or stroke. Benefits are usually paid as a lump sum. Hospital indemnity policies pay fixed daily amounts for hospitalization. Disability income policies replace lost income. Vision coverage pays for eye exams and lenses.

Question 3 (Chapter 5)

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates an unfair discrimination practice prohibited in Maryland individual health insurance underwriting?

  • A) An applicant is charged a higher premium due to a history of smoking, which increases health risks.
  • B) An applicant is offered a policy with a reduced benefit limit due to a hazardous occupation.
  • C) An applicant is placed in a substandard risk class due to elevated cholesterol levels.
  • D) An applicant is denied coverage because they are a survivor of domestic violence, based solely on that status.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Maryland law prohibits unfair discrimination against applicants based on their status as victims of domestic violence. Charging higher premiums for smoking, adjusting benefits for occupation, or classifying based on cholesterol levels are permitted underwriting practices based on risk factors. Denying coverage solely due to domestic violence victim status is an unfair and prohibited practice.

Question 4 (Chapter 5)

Under Maryland law, which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of genetic information in individual health insurance underwriting?

  • A) Insurers may use genetic test results to deny coverage or increase premiums if they indicate a predisposition to a future illness.
  • B) Insurers may use genetic information only if the applicant has already been diagnosed with a genetic disorder.
  • C) Insurers may use genetic information to determine eligibility but not to adjust premium rates.
  • D) Insurers are prohibited from requesting, requiring, or using genetic information or genetic test results for underwriting purposes.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Maryland law prohibits insurers from requesting, requiring, or using genetic information or genetic test results in the underwriting of individual health insurance policies. This includes using such information to deny coverage, increase premiums, or alter policy terms. The prohibition applies regardless of whether the applicant has a diagnosed condition or is asymptomatic. Genetic information privacy is protected to prevent unfair discrimination based on predisposition.

Question 5 (Chapter 5)

In Maryland, which of the following is a required uniform provision in an individual health insurance policy that allows the insured to terminate the policy at any time and for any reason?

  • A) Cancellation by insured
  • B) Reinstatement
  • C) Grace period
  • D) Time of payment of claims
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

The uniform required provision 'Cancellation by insured' explicitly gives the policyholder the right to terminate the contract at any time and for any reason. Reinstatement allows a lapsed policy to be revived under certain conditions. The grace period provides additional time to pay premiums after the due date. Time of payment of claims specifies when the insurer must pay benefits after receiving proof of loss. Therefore, only 'Cancellation by insured' matches the description.

Question 6 (Chapter 5)

Which of the following is a common exclusion found in individual health insurance policies delivered in Maryland that applies to losses resulting from the insured's participation in illegal activities?

  • A) Participation in a felony or illegal occupation
  • B) Elective cosmetic surgery
  • C) War or act of war
  • D) Conditions covered by workers' compensation
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Standard exclusions in individual health insurance policies include losses arising from the insured's participation in a felony or illegal occupation. This is explicitly listed in the content outline under common exclusions. Elective cosmetic surgery, war, and workers' compensation-related conditions are also common exclusions, but only option C directly addresses illegal activity participation as the basis for exclusion.

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Practice Questions 7-12: Disability Income, Medical Plans, Group Health and Dental

Disability Income and Related Insurance, Medical Plans, Group Health Insurance and Dental Insurance together make up nearly 30% of the exam, led by Medical Plans at 14%. These six move through a residual disability benefit, an HSA contribution limit, coordination of benefits, an indemnity dental plan's crown payment, which plan is primary for an employee covered twice over, and a Social Insurance Supplement rider.

Question 7 (Chapter 6)

Under a Maryland group long-term disability (LTD) plan, an employee is approved for benefits after a 180-day elimination period. Six months into receiving LTD benefits, the employee begins working part-time in a sedentary job earning 40% of their pre-disability income. The LTD policy includes a residual disability benefit provision. What is the most likely outcome regarding their LTD benefits?

  • A) Benefits stop immediately because the employee is now working.
  • B) Benefits remain unchanged at the full amount because the elimination period was already satisfied.
  • C) The employee must requalify as totally disabled to continue receiving any benefits.
  • D) Benefits are reduced proportionally to the income loss (60% of the full benefit).
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

A residual disability benefit provision pays a portion of the full benefit when the insured is working but earning less than pre-disability income due to the disability. Here, the employee earns 40% of pre-disability income, indicating a 60% income loss. Thus, benefits are typically reduced proportionally (e.g., 60% of the full LTD benefit). Benefits do not stop solely because the employee is working part-time if residual coverage applies, and requalification is not required under residual provisions.

Question 8 (Chapter 6)

A Maryland resident enrolled in a High Deductible Health Plan (HDHP) opens a Health Savings Account (HSA). In 2024, the individual has self-only coverage under the HDHP. What is the maximum amount they can contribute to their HSA for the year?

  • A) $4,150
  • B) $7,300
  • C) $8,300
  • D) $3,650
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

For 2024, the IRS maximum HSA contribution limit for individuals with self-only HDHP coverage is $4,150 (the family-coverage limit is $8,300). Options B, C, and D do not reflect the correct 2024 self-only limit -- $3,650 and $7,300 were earlier years' figures, and $8,300 is the family limit, not the self-only limit.

Question 9 (Chapter 6)

In Maryland, which of the following statements is true regarding the coordination of benefits (COB) provision in a group health plan when an employee is covered under both their own employer's plan and their spouse's employer's plan?

  • A) The employee's own employer's plan is always primary, and the spouse's plan is secondary.
  • B) The plan that has covered the employee longer is always primary.
  • C) The birthday rule determines which plan is primary for dependent children, but for the employee, their own plan is primary.
  • D) Plans may coordinate benefits so that the combined payments do not exceed 100% of the allowable expense.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Coordination of benefits ensures that the total payments from all plans do not exceed 100% of the allowable expense for a claim, preventing overpayment or profit from insurance. For the employee, their own employer's plan is typically primary, but this is not absolute in all COB models (e.g., if the employee is also a dependent elsewhere). The birthday rule applies only to dependent children covered under both parents' plans. Option D correctly states the core purpose of COB: to limit combined payments to 100% of allowable expenses.

Question 10 (Chapter 6)

A Maryland dentist wants to understand how a typical indemnity dental plan handles payment for a crown procedure. Which statement is accurate?

  • A) The plan pays the dentist the actual charged fee, regardless of the plan's fee schedule.
  • B) The plan pays a fixed indemnity amount, such as $150, for the crown procedure.
  • C) The plan requires the dentist to accept the plan's fee as payment in full, with no balance billing allowed.
  • D) The plan pays a percentage of the dentist's charged fee, usually 50% for major services like crowns.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

In a traditional indemnity dental plan, the plan typically pays a percentage of the dentist's charged fee for covered services, subject to any plan maximum or usual/customary/reasonable (UCR) limits. For major services like crowns, the payment is often 50% of the charged fee (after any deductible). The plan does not pay the actual charged fee regardless of schedule (that would be unreasonable), nor does it typically pay a fixed indemnity amount for specific procedures. While some plans may have network dentists who agree to fee schedules, traditional indemnity plans allow any provider and do not require acceptance of a fixed fee as payment in full (that is characteristic of DHMOs or some PPOs with negotiated fees).

Question 11 (Chapter 6)

A Maryland resident is covered under two group health plans: their own employer's plan and their spouse's employer's plan. Under the coordination of benefits (COB) provision, which plan is primary for the resident?

  • A) The plan that has covered the resident for the longer period of time is primary.
  • B) The plan with the higher premium is primary.
  • C) The resident can choose which plan is primary each calendar year.
  • D) The resident's own employer's plan is primary, and the spouse's plan is secondary.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

Under standard coordination of benefits rules, when an individual is covered as an employee under one plan and as a dependent under another, the plan where the individual is an employee is primary. The plan where the individual is a dependent (in this case, the spouse's plan) is secondary. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: length of coverage, premium amount, and annual choice do not determine primary status under typical COB regulations.

Question 12 (Chapter 6)

A Maryland resident purchases an individual disability income policy with a Social Insurance Supplement (SIS) rider. They become totally disabled and are approved for Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) benefits. How does the SIS rider function?

  • A) The policy pays a benefit equal to the difference between the SSDI amount and the policy's face amount, up to a maximum.
  • B) The policy refunds premiums if SSDI benefits are approved.
  • C) The policy reduces its benefit dollar-for-dollar by the amount of SSDI received.
  • D) The policy pays an additional benefit only if SSDI benefits are denied.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A Social Insurance Supplement (SIS) rider is designed to provide an additional benefit when the insured receives Social Security disability benefits. It typically pays the difference between the policy's insured amount and the SSDI benefit received, up to a specified maximum. This helps maintain the target income replacement level. Option B confuses SIS with a return of premium feature. Option C describes an offset or integration provision, which reduces the policy benefit (opposite of SIS). Option D is incorrect because SIS pays when SSDI is approved, not denied.

Practice Questions 13-18: Senior and Special-Needs Coverage, and Federal Tax for Health Insurance

Insurance for Senior Citizens and Special Needs Individuals and Federal Tax Considerations for Health Insurance close out the Accident and Health or Sickness outline. These six move through compound inflation protection on a long-term care policy, a Partnership-qualified long-term care policy's asset protection, Medicare Part A's hospital coinsurance, custodial care, the tax treatment of a personally-owned disability policy, and the tax treatment of an employer-paid group long-term disability plan.

Question 13 (Chapter 7)

A Maryland resident purchases a Long-Term Care (LTC) insurance policy that includes an inflation protection benefit that increases the daily benefit amount by 5% each year, compounded. This type of inflation protection is known as:

  • A) Simple inflation protection
  • B) Future purchase option
  • C) Guarantee of insurability
  • D) Compound inflation protection
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

When the daily benefit amount increases by a fixed percentage each year and that increase is compounded (i.e., each year's increase is based on the new, higher amount), it is called compound inflation protection. Simple inflation protection increases the benefit by a fixed dollar amount or a fixed percentage of the original amount each year, not compounded. Future purchase option allows the insured to buy additional coverage later without evidence of insurability. Guarantee of insurability ensures the right to increase coverage without new underwriting but does not itself describe an automatic annual increase. Therefore, A is correct.

Question 14 (Chapter 7)

A Maryland resident purchases a Partnership-qualified Long-Term Care (LTC) insurance policy. Which of the following is a key feature of this type of policy?

  • A) For every dollar of benefits paid out by the policy, the policyholder may protect one dollar of assets if they later apply for Medicaid.
  • B) It guarantees that the policyholder will never be denied Medicaid eligibility due to asset limits.
  • C) It eliminates the need for Medicaid spend-down by covering 100% of long-term care costs.
  • D) It allows the policyholder to receive Medicare benefits for long-term care services.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Partnership-qualified LTC policies are state-approved policies that allow individuals to protect assets equal to the amount of benefits paid out by the policy when applying for Medicaid long-term care coverage. For example, if the policy pays $100,000 in benefits, the individual may shield $100,000 of assets from Medicaid's asset spend-down requirements. This is known as dollar-for-dollar asset protection. Option B is incorrect because it does not guarantee Medicaid eligibility—it only helps with asset protection. Option C is false because LTC insurance rarely covers 100% of costs, and Partnership policies do not eliminate the need for Medicaid. Option D is incorrect because Medicare does not pay for long-term custodial care; Partnership policies relate to Medicaid, not Medicare.

Question 15 (Chapter 7)

A 70-year-old Maryland resident is hospitalized for 70 days. She is enrolled in Original Medicare Part A. After how many days of hospitalization in a benefit period does Medicare Part A typically require the beneficiary to pay a daily coinsurance?

  • A) After day 60
  • B) After day 30
  • C) After day 90
  • D) After day 120
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Medicare Part A covers the first 60 days of an inpatient hospital stay in a benefit period at 100% (after the deductible). Coinsurance payments are required for days 61-90 of a hospital stay. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Medicare Part A cost-sharing rules for hospital stays.

Question 16 (Chapter 7)

A Maryland resident requires assistance with daily activities such as bathing, dressing, and eating, but does not need constant medical supervision. Her condition is stable. What level of long-term care would typically be provided in this situation?

  • A) Custodial care
  • B) Skilled care
  • C) Intermediate care
  • D) Respite care
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Custodial care provides assistance with Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) like bathing, dressing, and eating, for individuals who are generally stable and do not require constant medical supervision. Skilled care (Option B) involves medically necessary care performed by licensed medical professionals. Intermediate care (Option C) is less intensive than skilled care but still requires nursing or rehabilitative care under medical supervision. Respite care (Option D) is temporary care to provide relief for a primary caregiver.

Question 17 (Chapter 7)

A self-employed Maryland resident purchases a personally-owned disability income insurance policy. She pays the premiums with after-tax dollars. If she becomes disabled and receives benefits from this policy, how are the premiums and benefits treated for federal income tax purposes?

  • A) Premiums are tax-deductible, and benefits are taxable.
  • B) Premiums are not tax-deductible, and benefits are taxable.
  • C) Premiums are tax-deductible, and benefits are tax-free.
  • D) Premiums are not tax-deductible, and benefits are tax-free.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

For personally-owned disability income insurance where the premiums are paid by the individual with after-tax dollars, the premiums are not tax-deductible. However, the benefits received if the individual becomes disabled are generally tax-free. This is a common tax treatment for individual disability policies.

Question 18 (Chapter 7)

A Maryland employer provides a group long-term disability (LTD) insurance plan for its employees, paying 100% of the premiums. For federal income tax purposes, how are the premiums paid by the employer and the benefits received by an employee who becomes disabled treated?

  • A) Premiums are deductible for the employer, and benefits are tax-free to the employee.
  • B) Premiums are not deductible for the employer, and benefits are taxable to the employee.
  • C) Premiums are taxable to the employee, and benefits are tax-free to the employee.
  • D) Premiums are deductible for the employer, and benefits are taxable to the employee.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

When an employer pays 100% of the premiums for a group disability income plan, the premiums are considered a deductible business expense for the employer. However, any benefits received by a disabled employee from that plan are considered taxable income to the employee. This is because the employee did not pay the premiums with after-tax dollars.

The Accident and Health Mistakes That Cost Marks

Treating misrepresentation on a health application as a minor omission. Failing to disclose a material fact, such as a recent diagnosis, is grounds for the insurer to deny a claim and rescind the policy from the start — it is not something a producer can wave off as not worth mentioning, and advising an applicant to leave it out is itself an improper field-underwriting practice.

Confusing the required "cancellation by insured" provision with the insurer's own cancellation rights. The uniform provision that lets a policyholder end the policy at any time, for any reason, is about the insured's right, not the insurer's. Separately, Maryland law prohibits denying coverage based on a status such as being a domestic violence survivor, and bars insurers from using genetic information in underwriting at all.

Mixing up a specified disease policy with a hospital indemnity policy. A specified disease policy pays only for a named illness; a hospital indemnity policy pays a fixed amount per day of hospitalization regardless of cause. A felony or illegal-occupation exclusion is a separate, standard exclusion that applies regardless of which limited policy type is involved.

Reading a residual or partial disability benefit as if it pays the full amount. It pays proportionally to the actual income loss once the insured is working again, even part-time or at reduced pay — not the full pre-disability benefit. Coordination of benefits works on the same logic from the other direction: the secondary plan only pays what the primary plan leaves unpaid, up to the actual expense, and for an employee covered under two plans, the plan where they are the employee is primary.

Assuming every senior-coverage rule works the same way across products. The Medigap open enrollment period guarantees issue without medical underwriting, but only for a limited window; a Partnership-qualified long-term care policy protects one dollar of assets for every dollar of benefits paid, which is not the same as eliminating a Medicaid spend-down; and Medicare Part A requires coinsurance starting on day 61 of a hospital stay, not from day one.

Forgetting which disability-insurance tax rule applies to which party. A personally-owned policy paid for with after-tax dollars pays tax-free benefits; a policy where the employer pays 100% of the premium is deductible to the employer but produces taxable benefits to the employee. Pairing the wrong premium-payer with the wrong tax outcome is the single most repeated trap in this section.

Chapters 5, 6 and 7 of the LanePrep Maryland course cover exactly this material as audio lessons, each with its own chapter quiz; chapter 1 previews free, no signup. For a 25-question sample across both exams, see the free practice set; for the Life Producer exam, see the Life Producer question set.

Your Next Step

How did you score?

15 or more correct (83%+): You are comfortably above the 70% target. Book the Accident and Health or Sickness exam (or the combined exam, if you are also sitting Life), then read how to pass the Maryland Life & Health exam on the first try for the full study plan.

12-14 correct: You are in range but close to the line. Note which chapter your misses fell in and re-listen to that chapter's audio lesson before retesting.

Under 12 correct: Maryland's own numbers put the first-time pass rate on this exam at roughly 67-71% — solid, but still leaving close to a third of candidates short of it. Start with chapter 5 of the course and work forward rather than guessing through another set.

Chapter 1 of the LanePrep Maryland course is free at /md/l-and-h/preview — full audio and the chapter quiz, no signup. For the full cost picture, see how much a Maryland L&H license costs.

Exam structure and fees from Prometric's 2024-10-01 Maryland Insurance Administration FAQ. Question counts and content weighting from the Prometric/MIA Accident and Health or Sickness Producer content outline (filename-dated 9/21/21). Pass rates from the NAIC 2024 and 2025 compiled pass-rate reports. Read October 2026.

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