18 Free Massachusetts Accident & Health Exam Practice Questions (2026)

18 min read|Updated 2026-10-17

How to Use This Accident, Health or Sickness Question Set

Massachusetts's Accident, Health or Sickness Producer exam is one of two separate Pearson VUE exams required for a Life & Health license — the other being the Life Producer exam. It delivers 80 scored questions (50 general-knowledge items plus 30 Massachusetts-specific items) and 10 unscored pretest questions mixed in without being labeled, for 90 items per sitting. Passing is a scaled score of 70, not a raw percentage, and the fee is $37 per attempt.

Content outline #122301, effective July 22, 2026, splits the 80 scored items as: Types of Policies (16), Policy Provisions, Clauses and Riders (15), Social Insurance (6), Other Insurance Concepts (5), Field Underwriting Procedures (8), Massachusetts Laws and Rules Pertinent to All Lines of Insurance (15), and Massachusetts Laws and Regulations Pertinent to Accident, Health or Sickness Insurance Only (15). Policy types alone is a fifth of the exam, and the two Massachusetts sections combined are again close to 40% of the scored content.

These 18 questions come from chapters 4, 5 and 6 of LanePrep's Massachusetts Life, Accident & Health quiz bank, in roughly that proportion: six on accident and health policy types (chapter 4), six on policy provisions and social insurance (chapter 5), and six on other A&H concepts, field underwriting and Massachusetts A&H law (chapter 6). Each question shows its chapter, so a miss tells you exactly which audio lesson to replay.

Massachusetts does not currently require a pre-licensing course for Accident, Health or Sickness producers. This exam is the friendlier of Massachusetts's two producer exams by the NAIC's numbers — first-time pass rates run 56-57% for 2024-2025, against 41-45% for the Life Producer exam — but a little-over-half pass rate still means a large minority of first-time candidates do not pass.

Work them before you read the answer. Every question has the explanation folded underneath it. Guessing and then reading is worth more than reading and then agreeing.

Practice Questions 1-6: Accident and Health Policy Types

This is the largest single section of the exam, and it leans on managed-care structures, disability-income definitions, and the policies built around a specific benefit or diagnosis rather than broad medical coverage. These six move through EPO versus PPO networks, hospital indemnity math, specified disease coverage, health savings accounts, disability definitions and AD&D exclusions.

Question 1 (Chapter 4)

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of an exclusive provider organization (EPO) plan compared to a preferred provider organization (PPO) plan?

  • A) EPOs require members to select a primary care physician and obtain referrals for specialist care.
  • B) EPOs provide some coverage for out-of-network providers, but at a reduced benefit level.
  • C) EPOs have higher premiums than PPOs due to their broader provider networks.
  • D) EPOs do not cover any non-emergency services obtained from out-of-network providers.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

An exclusive provider organization (EPO) plan requires members to use providers within the plan's network for all non-emergency care; services obtained from out-of-network providers are not covered except in emergencies. This is more restrictive than a PPO, which offers some level of coverage for out-of-network providers (though at a higher cost to the member). EPOs do not require a primary care physician or referrals (making B incorrect). They do not provide out-of-network coverage (making C incorrect). Premiums for EPOs are often lower than those for PPOs due to the more restricted network, not higher (making D incorrect).

Question 2 (Chapter 4)

A Massachusetts resident purchases an individual hospital indemnity insurance policy that pays $200 per day for hospitalization. If the insured is hospitalized for 5 days due to pneumonia, how much will the policy pay, assuming no other provisions affect the benefit?

  • A) $1,000
  • B) $200
  • C) $500
  • D) $1,200
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Hospital indemnity policies pay a fixed daily amount for each day of hospitalization, regardless of actual expenses. Here, $200 per day for 5 days equals $1,000. Option B is the daily benefit only. Option C incorrectly calculates 2.5 days. Option D assumes 6 days. The benefit is triggered by confinement and paid per day.

Question 3 (Chapter 4)

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a specified disease insurance policy, such as a cancer insurance policy?

  • A) To pay a lump-sum or periodic benefit upon diagnosis of the specified disease to help cover associated costs.
  • B) To replace lost income when the policyholder cannot work due to the specified disease.
  • C) To provide comprehensive medical coverage for all health conditions, including the specified disease.
  • D) To pay benefits only if the specified disease results in hospitalization.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

Specified disease insurance policies, such as cancer insurance, are designed to pay a lump-sum or periodic benefit upon diagnosis of the specified disease to help cover treatment, travel, or other associated costs. They do not replace lost income (which is the purpose of disability income insurance, making A incorrect). They are not comprehensive medical coverage (making B incorrect). Benefits are typically payable upon diagnosis, not contingent on hospitalization (making D incorrect).

Question 4 (Chapter 4)

Which of the following statements accurately describes a Health Savings Account (HSA) in the context of a high-deductible health plan (HDHP)?

  • A) HSAs are available to anyone with any type of health insurance plan.
  • B) Contributions to an HSA are made with pre-tax dollars, grow tax-free, and can be withdrawn tax-free for qualified medical expenses.
  • C) HSA funds must be used by the end of the plan year or they are forfeited.
  • D) An HSA is owned and controlled by the employer who establishes it.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Health Savings Accounts (HSAs) are triple tax-advantaged: contributions are made with pre-tax dollars (or are tax-deductible), earnings grow tax-free, and withdrawals for qualified medical expenses are tax-free. To be eligible for an HSA, an individual must be enrolled in a qualified high-deductible health plan (HDHP), not any plan (making A incorrect). Unlike Flexible Spending Accounts (FSAs), HSAs do not have a 'use-it-or-lose-it' rule; funds roll over year to year (making C incorrect). While employers may contribute to an HSA, the account is owned and controlled by the employee, not the employer (making D incorrect).

Question 5 (Chapter 4)

A Massachusetts resident purchases an individual disability income policy with an own-occupation definition of disability for the first two years, after which it changes to any-occupation. After 18 months of disability due to a back injury, the insured is able to work as a retail cashier but cannot return to their previous job as a construction worker. The insured files a claim for disability benefits. How will the insurer likely respond?

  • A) Deny the claim because the insured can work in another occupation.
  • B) Approve the claim because the insured cannot perform the duties of their own occupation.
  • C) Approve the claim only if the insured is unable to work in any occupation.
  • D) Deny the claim because the elimination period has not been satisfied.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

During the initial period (first two years) where the policy uses an own-occupation definition, benefits are payable if the insured cannot perform the material duties of their regular occupation, even if they can work in another job. Since the insured cannot work as a construction worker (their own occupation) but can work as a cashier, they meet the own-occupation criterion and should receive benefits. Option A incorrectly applies the any-occupation standard. Option C describes the any-occupation definition, which does not apply yet. Option D is irrelevant as the elimination period is a separate issue not mentioned in the scenario and would have been satisfied after 18 months of disability.

Question 6 (Chapter 4)

Which of the following is a standard exclusion found in most accidental death and dismemberment (AD&D) policies?

  • A) Loss resulting from a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.
  • B) Loss resulting from participating in a company-sponsored softball game.
  • C) Loss resulting from a workplace accident covered by workers' compensation.
  • D) Loss resulting from an illness such as a heart attack.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

AD&D policies only cover losses that result directly from accidents, not from illness or disease. A loss due to a heart attack or other medical condition is explicitly excluded because it is not accidental in nature. Options A, C, and D describe accidental events that would generally be covered unless other specific exclusions (like intoxication or illegal activity) apply. Workers' compensation coverage does not exclude AD&D benefits; both may be payable for the same incident.

Get the 25-question sample set by email

Want a full-exam practice set to study offline? Drop your email — we'll send 25 questions across every content area, each with the answer and explanation.

No spam. Just the questions and one optional follow-up.

Practice Questions 7-12: Accident and Health Policy Provisions and Social Insurance

Twenty-one of the 80 items on this exam split between the provisions that sit inside an individual accident and health policy (15) and the social insurance programs layered on top of private coverage (6). These six move through deductible-and-coinsurance arithmetic, the elimination period, preexisting condition limitations, Medicaid versus CHIP, noncancelable versus guaranteed renewable policies, and impairment riders.

Question 7 (Chapter 5)

A Massachusetts resident has a health insurance policy with a $1,000 annual deductible and 80% coinsurance. If the insured incurs $5,000 in eligible medical expenses in a year, how much will the insured pay out-of-pocket, assuming no copayments and the deductible applies first?

  • A) $1,000
  • B) $2,000
  • C) $4,000
  • D) $1,800
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

First, the insured pays the $1,000 deductible. The remaining $4,000 is subject to 80% coinsurance, meaning the insurer pays 80% ($3,200) and the insured pays 20% ($800). Total out-of-pocket is $1,000 + $800 = $1,800. Option A ignores coinsurance, Option B incorrectly applies coinsurance to the full amount, and Option C is the insurer's payment, not the insured's.

Question 8 (Chapter 5)

In Massachusetts, which of the following best describes the purpose of an 'elimination period' in a disability income insurance policy?

  • A) It is the time during which the insured must be hospitalized before benefits begin.
  • B) It is the period during which the insurer investigates the validity of the claim.
  • C) It is the maximum length of time benefits will be paid for a single disability.
  • D) It serves as a deductible in time, requiring the disability to continue for a specified period before benefits are payable.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

The elimination period (also called the waiting period) in a disability income policy is a specified length of time that must elapse after the onset of a disability before benefits become payable. It functions similarly to a deductible but is measured in time rather than money. The insured must be disabled and unable to work for the entire elimination period (e.g., 30, 60, or 90 days) before the insurer begins paying benefits. It is not related to hospitalization requirements (A), claims investigation (B), or the maximum benefit duration (C), which is governed by the benefit period.

Question 9 (Chapter 5)

In Massachusetts, which of the following best describes the 'preexisting condition' limitation as it typically appears in an individual health insurance policy?

  • A) It allows the insurer to deny any claim related to a condition diagnosed before the policy's effective date, regardless of when treatment occurs.
  • B) It requires the insured to pay double premiums for any condition diagnosed prior to enrollment.
  • C) It is prohibited under Massachusetts law for all individual health insurance policies.
  • D) It may exclude coverage for conditions diagnosed or treated within a specified period (e.g., 6 or 12 months) before the policy's effective date, for a defined time after enrollment.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

A preexisting condition limitation in a health insurance policy typically excludes coverage for medical conditions that were diagnosed, treated, or for which symptoms were present within a specified look-back period (commonly 3 to 6 months) before the policy's effective date. The exclusion usually applies for a defined period after enrollment (e.g., 6 or 12 months), after which coverage for the condition may be provided. It does not allow denial of all related claims indefinitely (A), does not require double premiums (B), and is not prohibited under Massachusetts law (C)—while the Affordable Care Act and Massachusetts health reform law restrict such exclusions in certain markets, traditional individual health insurance policies (outside of guaranteed issue frameworks) may still include them, and the exam tests knowledge of standard policy provisions.

Question 10 (Chapter 5)

Which of the following is a key difference between Medicaid and the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP) in Massachusetts?

  • A) Medicaid is funded solely by the federal government, while CHIP is funded solely by the state.
  • B) Medicaid covers only children, while CHIP covers only pregnant women.
  • C) CHIP requires beneficiaries to pay premiums, while Medicaid never charges premiums.
  • D) CHIP provides coverage to children in families with incomes too high to qualify for Medicaid but too low to afford private insurance.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

CHIP is designed to provide health coverage to children in families whose incomes are too high to qualify for Medicaid but too low to afford private insurance. Option A is incorrect because both Medicaid and CHIP are jointly funded by federal and state governments. Option B is incorrect because Medicaid covers a broad population including children, pregnant women, elderly, and disabled individuals, while CHIP focuses on children and sometimes pregnant women. Option C is incorrect because while some CHIP programs may have premiums, many do not, and Medicaid generally does not charge premiums for most beneficiaries, though some states may have nominal charges for certain groups.

Question 11 (Chapter 5)

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a 'noncancelable' health insurance policy in Massachusetts, as compared to a 'guaranteed renewable' policy?

  • A) The insurer can increase premiums but cannot cancel the policy as long as premiums are paid.
  • B) The policy can be canceled by the insurer on the anniversary date if the insured's health has deteriorated.
  • C) The insured has the right to decrease the benefit amount at any time without proof of insurability.
  • D) The insurer cannot cancel the policy or increase premiums as long as the insured pays the premiums when due.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

A noncancelable policy guarantees that the insurer cannot cancel the policy or increase the premium for any reason, as long as the insured pays the premiums when due. This provides the strongest protection against both termination and premium increases. In contrast, a guaranteed renewable policy guarantees renewal but allows the insurer to increase premiums on a class basis (not individually). Option A describes guaranteed renewable, not noncancelable. Option B is incorrect because neither policy type allows cancellation based on health deterioration. Option C refers to a feature not standard in either provision; decreasing benefits typically does not require proof of insurability, but this is not a defining characteristic of noncancelable policies.

Question 12 (Chapter 5)

In Massachusetts, which of the following best describes the purpose of an 'impairment rider' (also called an exclusion rider) in an individual health insurance policy?

  • A) To exclude coverage for a specific preexisting condition, allowing the policy to be issued that would otherwise be declined.
  • B) To increase the benefit amount for a specific condition.
  • C) To waive premiums if the insured becomes disabled due to a specific impairment.
  • D) To guarantee the right to increase coverage in the future without evidence of insurability.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

An impairment rider (or exclusion rider) amends the policy to exclude coverage for a specific preexisting condition. This allows the insurer to issue the policy when it might otherwise decline coverage due to that condition. It does not increase benefits, waive premiums, or guarantee future increase options. Those are functions of other riders (waiver of premium, future increase option).

Practice Questions 13-18: Other Accident and Health Concepts, Field Underwriting and Massachusetts Law

The closing items split between other A&H concepts and field underwriting procedures (13 combined) and a flat 15 items of Massachusetts's own A&H-specific statutes, on top of the 15-item all-lines section shared with the Life Producer exam. These six move through self-employed tax treatment, MassHealth, subrogation, occupational versus non-occupational coverage, S-corporation shareholder taxation and recurrent disability clauses.

Question 13 (Chapter 6)

A Massachusetts producer is explaining the tax treatment of health insurance premiums and benefits to a client who is self-employed. Which statement is accurate regarding federal income tax treatment?

  • A) Premiums paid for individual health insurance are never deductible for self-employed individuals.
  • B) Self-employed individuals may deduct 100% of health insurance premiums as an adjustment to income, subject to certain limits.
  • C) Benefits received from a health insurance policy are always taxable as ordinary income.
  • D) Only premiums for policies covering dependents are deductible; premiums for the self-employed individual are not deductible.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Under federal tax law, self-employed individuals can deduct 100% of their health insurance premiums (including medical, dental, and long-term care) as an adjustment to income on Form 1040, provided they are not eligible to participate in an employer-sponsored plan. This deduction is taken whether or not the taxpayer itemizes. Option A is incorrect because the deduction is available. Option C is incorrect because health insurance benefits for medical expenses are generally not taxable. Option D is incorrect because the deduction covers premiums for the self-employed individual, spouse, and dependents.

Question 14 (Chapter 6)

A Massachusetts resident is eligible for MassHealth. Which of the following services is a core benefit provided under MassHealth Standard?

  • A) Routine dental care for adults over 21.
  • B) Inpatient hospital services.
  • C) Long-term nursing home care for individuals who do not meet medical eligibility criteria.
  • D) Cosmetic surgery procedures.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

MassHealth Standard provides a comprehensive benefit package that includes inpatient hospital services as a core benefit. Option A is incorrect because routine dental care is not covered for adults over 21 under MassHealth Standard (limited emergency and certain surgical dental services are covered). Option C is incorrect because long-term nursing home care requires meeting specific medical and financial eligibility criteria. Option D is incorrect as cosmetic surgery is generally not covered unless it is reconstructive due to injury or sickness.

Question 15 (Chapter 6)

In Massachusetts, a producer is explaining the concept of 'subrogation' to a client who has received a disability benefit payment under their health insurance policy. Which statement accurately describes subrogation in this context?

  • A) The insured has the right to sue a third party for damages and keep any settlement, regardless of the insurance benefit received.
  • B) The insurer must obtain the insured's permission before paying any benefit if a third party might be liable.
  • C) Subrogation allows the insured to double-dip by collecting both the insurance benefit and full damages from a liable third party.
  • D) If the disability was caused by a third party's negligence, the insurer may step into the insured's shoes to recover the amount it paid in benefits from that third party.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

D is correct because subrogation allows the insurer, after paying a benefit, to pursue recovery from a third party responsible for the loss. The insurer steps into the insured's legal position to claim damages up to the amount of the benefit paid. This prevents the insured from receiving a double recovery. A is incorrect because the insured cannot keep a full settlement if the insurer has subrogation rights; any recovery must first reimburse the insurer. B is incorrect because the insurer does not need permission to pay benefits; subrogation occurs after payment. C is incorrect because subrogation prevents, not allows, double recovery; the insured must typically reimburse the insurer from any third-party recovery up to the benefit amount.

Question 16 (Chapter 6)

A Massachusetts producer is explaining the concept of 'occupational vs. non-occupational' coverage to a client. Which statement accurately describes a key difference between these two types of coverage in accident and health insurance?

  • A) Occupational coverage only applies to injuries sustained while working for the insured's employer, while non-occupational coverage applies to injuries occurring outside of work.
  • B) Non-occupational coverage typically has higher benefit limits than occupational coverage.
  • C) Occupational coverage is required by Massachusetts law for all employers, while non-occupational coverage is optional.
  • D) Benefits under occupational coverage are paid only if the insured is hospitalized, whereas non-occupational benefits are paid for any disability.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A

A is correct because occupational coverage specifically applies to injuries or sickness arising out of and in the course of employment, while non-occupational coverage applies to injuries or sickness occurring outside of work. This distinction is fundamental in accident and health insurance. B is incorrect as benefit limits are not inherently higher for non-occupational coverage; they vary by policy. C is incorrect because Massachusetts law does not require occupational coverage for all employers; workers' compensation laws govern occupational injuries, but this is separate from individual health insurance. D is incorrect because occupational coverage benefits are not contingent on hospitalization; they are payable for disability resulting from occupational injuries or sickness.

Question 17 (Chapter 6)

In Massachusetts, a producer is discussing the tax treatment of health insurance with a client who is an S-corporation shareholder-employee owning more than 2% of the company. Which statement accurately describes the federal income tax treatment of health insurance premiums paid by the S-corporation for this shareholder-employee?

  • A) The premiums are deductible by the S-corporation and excluded from the shareholder-employee's gross income.
  • B) The premiums are not deductible by the S-corporation and are included in the shareholder-employee's gross income as wages.
  • C) The premiums are not deductible by the S-corporation and are excluded from the shareholder-employee's gross income.
  • D) The premiums are deductible by the S-corporation but are included in the shareholder-employee's gross income as wages.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D

For S-corporation shareholder-employees owning more than 2% of the stock, health insurance premiums paid by the corporation are deductible as a business expense by the S-corporation. However, these premiums are treated as wages and must be included in the shareholder-employee's gross income for federal income tax purposes, subject to income tax withholding. They are not excludable from income like they are for common-law employees or partners in a partnership. Option A incorrectly states the premiums are excluded from income. Option B incorrectly states the premiums are not deductible by the corporation. Option C is incorrect on both counts.

Question 18 (Chapter 6)

A Massachusetts resident purchases an individual disability income policy with a recurrent disability clause. After recovering from a back injury and returning to work for three months, the same condition recurs, preventing them from performing their job duties. How will the insurer likely treat this recurrence under the policy's recurrent disability provision?

  • A) As a new claim, requiring a new elimination period before benefits are payable.
  • B) As a continuation of the original disability, so no new elimination period applies.
  • C) Only if the recurrence occurs within 30 days of the initial recovery will it be considered recurrent.
  • D) The insurer will deny the claim because the insured returned to work, indicating recovery.
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B

Recurrent disability provisions define a recurrence of the same or related condition within a specified period (often 6 months) as a continuation of the original disability, not a new claim. Therefore, no new elimination period applies, and benefits resume if the insured meets the disability definition. Option A is incorrect because it describes treatment as a new claim. Option C is incorrect because the time frame is not universally 30 days; it is defined by the policy. Option D is incorrect because returning to work does not automatically negate recurrent disability if the same condition causes disability again.

The Accident, Health or Sickness Mistakes That Cost Marks

Mixing up EPO and PPO networks. Both skip the HMO-style referral requirement, but a PPO still pays something for out-of-network care at a higher cost-sharing level, while an EPO generally pays nothing out-of-network except in an emergency.

Stopping the math at the deductible. Deductible and coinsurance are two separate steps: subtract the deductible first, then apply the coinsurance split to what remains. A hospital indemnity policy's daily benefit is a separate, simpler calculation — a fixed dollar amount per day, regardless of the actual bill.

Treating a noncancelable policy and a guaranteed renewable policy as the same guarantee. A noncancelable policy locks both the renewal right and the premium. A guaranteed renewable policy locks the renewal right but still allows the insurer to raise premiums for an entire class of insureds.

Assuming a specified disease policy or a hospital indemnity policy replaces major medical coverage. Both are narrow, supplemental products — a specified disease policy pays only for the named condition, and a hospital indemnity policy pays a fixed amount regardless of the actual bill. Neither is a substitute for comprehensive medical coverage.

Forgetting that a recurrent disability clause avoids a second elimination period. When the same or a related condition causes a new period of disability within the timeframe the policy specifies, a recurrent disability clause treats it as a continuation of the original claim rather than requiring the insured to satisfy the elimination period again.

Chapters 4, 5 and 6 of the LanePrep Massachusetts course cover exactly this material as audio lessons, each with its own chapter quiz; chapter 1 previews free, no signup. For the Life Producer exam, see the Life Producer question set; for a 25-question sample across both exams, see the free practice set.

Your Next Step

How did you score?

  • 15 or more correct (83%+): You are comfortably above the scaled-70 target. Book the Accident, Health or Sickness exam, then read how to pass the Massachusetts Life & Health exam on the first try for the week-by-week plan covering both exams.
  • 12-14 correct: You are in range but close to the line. Note which chapter your misses fell in and re-listen to that chapter's audio lesson before retesting.
  • Under 12 correct: Even with a friendlier first-time pass rate (56-57%) than the Life Producer exam, close to half of first-time candidates still do not pass this exam. Start with chapter 4 of the course and work forward rather than guessing through another set.

Chapters of the LanePrep Massachusetts course covering accident, health or sickness are included with the full course; chapter 1 previews free, no signup. For the full cost picture, see how much a Massachusetts L&H license costs.

Exam structure and fees from the Pearson VUE / Massachusetts DOI Candidate Handbook #122300 (rev. June 2026). Question counts and content weighting from Pearson VUE content outline #122301 (effective July 22, 2026). Pass rates from the NAIC compiled pass-rate reports for 2024 and 2025. Read October 2026.

Free: 25 Massachusetts L&H practice questions

Liked this article? Get 25 exam-style questions emailed to you — with full answer explanations, no credit card. Closest thing to studying offline.

No spam. Just the questions and one optional follow-up.

Study this topic with LanePrep

Listen to these audio chapters on your commute — no screen required.

Related Articles

Ready to start studying?

Listen to Chapter 1 free — no signup required. Audio lessons you can take anywhere.